a client receiving heparin therapy develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. A client receiving heparin therapy develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed. These interventions help relieve dyspnea and chest pain, which can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism or other complications during heparin therapy. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not the initial priority in this situation as the client's symptoms are not suggestive of angina. Assessing for bleeding (Choice C) is important but not the first action needed to address chest pain and dyspnea. Administering albuterol (Choice D) is not indicated unless there are specific respiratory issues requiring it, which are not described in the scenario.

2. Which of these findings would the nurse more closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pale mucous membranes, such as those of the eyelids and lips, are a classic sign of anemia in infants. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, resulting in tissue hypoxia, which can manifest as pale mucosa. Choice A, a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL, is within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant and would not necessarily indicate anemia. Choice C, hypoactivity, is a non-specific finding and can be present in various conditions, not specifically anemia. Choice D, a heart rate between 140 to 160, is within the normal range for an infant and is not a specific finding associated with anemia.

3. The nurse prepares a discharge plan for an older adult client following cataract extraction. What instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide after cataract extraction is to advise the client to avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects. These activities can increase intraocular pressure, which should be minimized post-surgery to promote healing and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because limiting sunlight exposure, irrigating the conjunctiva with saline, and reading without direct lighting are not primary instructions following cataract extraction.

4. A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.

5. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who reports tingling in the feet and who is newly diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease. Which outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Controlling blood pressure is critical in managing peripheral vascular disease, as elevated pressure can exacerbate vascular damage and complications. While foot care, shoe fit, and exercise are important, lowering blood pressure is a primary goal. Proper blood pressure management helps in preventing further damage to the blood vessels and reduces the risk of complications associated with peripheral vascular disease, making it the most crucial outcome to include in the plan of care for this client.

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