a client receiving heparin therapy develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. A client receiving heparin therapy develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed. These interventions help relieve dyspnea and chest pain, which can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism or other complications during heparin therapy. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not the initial priority in this situation as the client's symptoms are not suggestive of angina. Assessing for bleeding (Choice C) is important but not the first action needed to address chest pain and dyspnea. Administering albuterol (Choice D) is not indicated unless there are specific respiratory issues requiring it, which are not described in the scenario.

2. While caring for a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes purulent drainage at the wound. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should review which of the client's laboratory values?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Purulent drainage suggests an infection at the wound site. Reviewing the culture and sensitivity results will guide appropriate antibiotic treatment by identifying the causative organisms and their antibiotic sensitivities. Elevated white blood cells indicate infection but do not specify the organism. Creatinine and hemoglobin values are unrelated to wound infections.

3. A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's level of consciousness. Lactulose is used to reduce ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy. Monitoring the level of consciousness helps assess the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in improving the client's condition. Monitoring ammonia levels (choice A) is important, but assessing the client's response to therapy through their level of consciousness is more crucial. Blood glucose levels (choice B) and potassium levels (choice C) are not directly related to lactulose therapy for cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy.

4. A client recently started on warfarin therapy. What laboratory value is most important to monitor for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor for clients on warfarin therapy. PT helps determine how long it takes blood to clot and ensures the warfarin dose is within the therapeutic range to prevent either excessive bleeding or clotting. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but PT is more specific to warfarin therapy. Creatinine level and BUN are indicators of kidney function and are not directly related to warfarin therapy.

5. An older client with type 1 diabetes arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Start an IV infusion of normal saline. The client is showing signs of dehydration, such as abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion, which can be exacerbated by hyperglycemia. Rehydration is the initial priority to address the fluid imbalance. Option B, obtaining a serum potassium level, though important in the management of diabetes, is not the immediate priority over rehydration. Option C, administering the client's usual dose of insulin, should only be done after addressing the dehydration and confirming the client's blood glucose levels. Option D, assessing the pupillary response to light, is not the most urgent intervention needed in this situation compared to rehydration to correct fluid imbalance.

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