Nursing Elites

1. A middle-aged woman talks to the nurse in the healthcare provider's office about uterine fibroids, also called leiomyomas or myomas. What statement by the woman indicates more education is needed?

• A. I am one of every 4 women that get fibroids, and among women my age - between the 30s or 40s, fibroids occur more frequently.
• B. My fibroids are noncancerous tumors that grow slowly.
• C. The associated problems I have had are pelvic pressure and pain, urinary incontinence, frequent urination, urine retention, and constipation.
• D. Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because fibroids that are asymptomatic usually do not require treatment or removal. The statement 'Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out' indicates a need for further education. Choice A correctly states the frequency of fibroids in women and their age group. Choice B accurately describes fibroids as noncancerous slow-growing tumors. Choice C lists common symptoms associated with uterine fibroids.

2. The nurse is planning care for a client with a CVA. Which of the following measures planned by the nurse would be most effective in preventing skin breakdown?

• A. Place the client in the wheelchair for four hours each day
• B. Pad the bony prominences
• C. Reposition every two hours
• D. Massage reddened bony prominence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Repositioning every two hours is the most effective measure in preventing skin breakdown for a client with a CVA. This practice helps to relieve pressure on the skin, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Placing the client in a wheelchair for extended periods (Choice A) can increase pressure on specific areas, leading to skin breakdown. Padding bony prominences (Choice B) can provide some protection but may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Massaging reddened bony prominences (Choice D) can potentially worsen the condition by causing further damage to already compromised skin.

3. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated PTT
• D. Clotting time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with anticoagulants. Which of these findings is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Presence of bruising on the arms and legs
• B. The client reports new onset of severe headache
• C. The client reports pain and swelling in the calf
• D. The client reports increased urination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because pain and swelling in the calf can indicate a new or worsening DVT, requiring immediate attention. Bruising on the arms and legs may be a common side effect of anticoagulants but is not as concerning as a potential DVT. Severe headache may indicate other conditions like a migraine or hypertension and is not directly related to DVT. Increased urination is not typically associated with DVT and may point towards other health issues like diabetes or urinary tract infections.

5. A client is being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide (Lasix). Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased appetite
• C. Weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A rapid weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours suggests significant fluid loss, which is concerning in clients on diuretics like furosemide. Increased urine output (choice A) is an expected effect of diuretic therapy. Decreased appetite (choice B) is a common side effect but not as concerning as rapid weight loss. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg (choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most concerning finding in a client being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide.

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