HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with heart failure is experiencing shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer prescribed diuretics
- B. Place the client in a supine position
- C. Restrict fluid intake immediately
- D. Increase the client's sodium intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer prescribed diuretics. Diuretics are prescribed to reduce fluid overload in clients with heart failure. By promoting urine output, diuretics help alleviate symptoms like shortness of breath and swelling. While placing the client in a supine position can help with breathing and fluid redistribution, administering diuretics takes precedence as it directly addresses fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake immediately may be necessary in some cases, but the immediate priority is to administer diuretics. Increasing the client's sodium intake would worsen fluid retention and is contraindicated in heart failure.
2. Which strategy should the nurse implement when teaching a client with low literacy about a new diagnosis of hypertension?
- A. Provide a detailed handout with complex terms
- B. Use simple language and visual aids
- C. Encourage the client to research the diagnosis online
- D. Incorporate medical jargon to explain the condition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct strategy for teaching a client with low literacy about a new diagnosis of hypertension is to use simple language and visual aids. This approach helps ensure better understanding of the diagnosis and treatment plan by making the information clear and accessible. Providing a detailed handout with complex terms (Choice A) would not be suitable as it may confuse the client further. Encouraging the client to research the diagnosis online (Choice C) could lead to misinformation and overwhelm the client with information they may not understand. Incorporating medical jargon to explain the condition (Choice D) would not be helpful for a client with low literacy as it may complicate rather than clarify the information.
3. A female client experiences a sudden loss of consciousness and is taken to the emergency department. Initial assessment indicates her blood glucose level is critically low. Once stabilized, she reports being treated for anorexia nervosa. What intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan?
- A. Encourage a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
- B. Encourage her to join a group focusing on self-esteem.
- C. Schedule an outpatient psychosocial assessment.
- D. Teach relaxation techniques to manage stress.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Joining a group that focuses on self-esteem is the most important intervention for the nurse to include in the client's discharge plan. This can help the client address underlying emotional issues related to her anorexia nervosa and improve her mental health. Choice A is incorrect because a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet may not address the psychological factors contributing to anorexia nervosa. Choice C is incorrect as scheduling an outpatient psychosocial assessment is important but not the most crucial intervention for discharge planning in this case. Choice D is also not the priority as teaching relaxation techniques, although beneficial, may not directly address the self-esteem and emotional issues that need to be tackled in this situation.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- B. Reposition the client to improve breathing.
- C. Perform chest physiotherapy.
- D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with COPD experiencing increasing shortness of breath. It helps improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress. Choice B is not the priority as oxygenation needs to be addressed first. Choice C, chest physiotherapy, may be beneficial but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice D, encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe, is not the priority intervention when oxygenation is compromised.
5. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
- A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Heart failure
- D. Renal failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Stroke is a major complication of uncontrolled hypertension. Elevated BP, especially at levels like 158/106, can cause damage to blood vessels in the brain, leading to a hemorrhagic stroke. Controlling BP is essential to prevent such life-threatening events. Myocardial infarction (choice B) is more commonly associated with coronary artery disease, while heart failure (choice C) and renal failure (choice D) can be complications of uncontrolled hypertension but are not directly related to the elevated BP leading to a hemorrhagic stroke.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access