the healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol for a client with multi organ failure caused by a ruptured appendix which intervention is most im
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. The healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol for a client with multi-organ failure caused by a ruptured appendix. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the care plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In sepsis with multi-organ failure, monitoring intake and output is critical to assess renal function and fluid balance, as organ failure can cause fluid shifts and decreased kidney function. Antibiotics are essential to treat the infection, but monitoring intake and output provides real-time insight into the client's status, helping to detect early signs of worsening organ function. Early ambulation and blood glucose monitoring are important aspects of care but are not as crucial as maintaining strict intake and output in this situation.

2. An older male client, who is a retired chef, is hospitalized with a diabetic ulcer on his foot. His daughter tells the nurse that her father has become increasingly obsessed with the way his food is prepared in the hospital. The nurse's response should be based on what information?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Age can magnify pre-existing compulsive tendencies. If the client was detail-oriented about food earlier in life, this behavior may intensify with aging. It's important to acknowledge and address the client's concerns respectfully. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the daughter's observations do not necessarily point to depression, the compulsiveness about food does not indicate new cognitive decline without further assessment, and obsessiveness with food is not specifically common in diabetic clients.

3. A client with Type 1 diabetes reports feeling shaky and lightheaded. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 60 mg/dL. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. The first step in treating hypoglycemia is to quickly raise the client's blood sugar level. Fast-acting carbohydrates like glucose tablets or juice are essential for this purpose. Giving a glucagon injection is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take anything by mouth. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for immediate treatment of hypoglycemia. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes is important after administering the fast-acting carbohydrate to ensure that the blood sugar has returned to a safe level.

4. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication with meals. Which rationale should the nurse provide for taking the medication with food?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It reduces gastrointestinal upset.' Levodopa/carbidopa can cause nausea and other gastrointestinal side effects. Taking the medication with food can help reduce these side effects and improve the client's comfort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication with food does not primarily enhance effectiveness, improve absorption, or prevent orthostatic hypotension. The main reason for advising to take the medication with meals is to minimize gastrointestinal upset.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

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