the healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol for a client with multi organ failure caused by a ruptured appendix which intervention is most im
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. The healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol for a client with multi-organ failure caused by a ruptured appendix. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the care plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In sepsis with multi-organ failure, monitoring intake and output is critical to assess renal function and fluid balance, as organ failure can cause fluid shifts and decreased kidney function. Antibiotics are essential to treat the infection, but monitoring intake and output provides real-time insight into the client's status, helping to detect early signs of worsening organ function. Early ambulation and blood glucose monitoring are important aspects of care but are not as crucial as maintaining strict intake and output in this situation.

2. A young adult was hit in the temporal area with a baseball bat and is being monitored for signs of a closed head injury. Which finding indicates a developing epidural hematoma?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after a temporal injury is a classic sign of epidural hematoma, which is a neurosurgical emergency. This finding occurs due to the rapid expansion of the hematoma, causing compression of the brain. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are more commonly associated with other types of head injuries, such as concussion. Severe headache and blurred vision (choice C) are symptoms seen in various head injuries but are not specific to epidural hematomas. Loss of motor function on the affected side (choice D) is more indicative of a different type of head injury, such as a contusion or intracerebral hematoma.

3. A client with pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention has the highest priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate. In a client with pheochromocytoma, the highest priority intervention is to ensure adequate intravascular volume before initiating any other treatment. This helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur due to the release of catecholamines during tumor manipulation. While monitoring blood pressure frequently is essential, ensuring adequate intravascular volume takes precedence. Administering pain medication and antihypertensive medications are important but are not the highest priority in the initial management of pheochromocytoma.

4. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, that the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and that her eyes are puffy. What follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cold intolerance, fatigue, and other changes may indicate hypothyroidism, which could explain the hair and eyebrow loss, and puffy eyes. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the symptoms presented by the client.

5. A client is receiving morphine for postoperative pain. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, so assessing the respiratory rate is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Monitoring the client's level of consciousness (Choice B) is important but comes after ensuring adequate breathing. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice C) is essential but not the priority when dealing with the side effects of morphine. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (Choice D) is also important but not the priority assessment when the focus is on respiratory depression.

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