a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86 what
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86%. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is the nurse's first action when a client with COPD presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86%. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygen saturation in patients with COPD and respiratory distress. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate intervention to improve oxygenation takes priority. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also assist with breathing but is not the initial action in this scenario. Suctioning the airway is not indicated unless there are secretions obstructing the airway, which is not mentioned in the scenario.

2. The client is being taught about precautions with Coumadin therapy. The client should be instructed to avoid which over-the-counter medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking Coumadin, which is an anticoagulant medication. Avoiding NSAIDs helps prevent potentially dangerous interactions with Coumadin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Cough medicines with guaifenesin, histamine blockers, and laxatives containing magnesium salts do not typically have significant interactions with Coumadin therapy. Therefore, they are not the over-the-counter medications that the client needs to avoid while on Coumadin.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse teach the client to monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for a persistent cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with a common side effect of a persistent dry cough. This cough can be bothersome to the client and should be reported to their healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bradycardia, dizziness, swelling, difficulty breathing, headache, and blurred vision are not typically associated with lisinopril use.

4. A 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis has developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis presenting with projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. This is essential to maintain hydration before surgery. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is inadequate and does not address the need for proper hydration. Offering oral rehydration every 2 hours (Choice B) may not be effective in cases of severe vomiting and could lead to further fluid loss. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (Choice C) is an option, but in severe cases, intravenous fluid therapy is more effective in ensuring hydration and electrolyte balance.

5. A client has been receiving hydromorphone every six hours for four days. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hydromorphone can cause constipation, a common side effect of opioids. Therefore, it is crucial to auscultate bowel sounds to monitor for signs of decreased gastrointestinal motility. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are important but not the priority in this scenario as constipation is a common issue with opioid use. Increasing the dosage of the medication (choice A) is not appropriate without assessing the client's bowel function first.

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