HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client with portosystemic encephalopathy is receiving oral lactulose (Chronulac) daily. The nurse assesses which of the following to determine medication effectiveness?
- A. Lung sounds
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Blood ammonia level
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In portosystemic encephalopathy, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is impaired, leading to elevated blood ammonia levels, which can cause neurological symptoms such as encephalopathy. Lactulose is given to reduce ammonia levels by promoting its excretion through the bowel. Therefore, assessing the blood ammonia level is crucial to determine the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in managing portosystemic encephalopathy.
2. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?
- A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
- B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
- C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
- D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.
3. The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to this medication?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hair loss
- C. Chest pain
- D. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Vincristine is known to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, resulting in numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Diarrhea, hair loss, and chest pain are not typically associated with vincristine use.
4. Before administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, what is the most important laboratory test result for the nurse to check?
- A. Potassium level
- B. Creatinine level
- C. Cholesterol level
- D. Blood urea nitrogen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the potassium level before administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, so it is crucial to assess the potassium level to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.
5. A client receiving nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) calls the health care provider's office complaining of side effects related to the medication. Which side effect indicates the need to stop treatment with this medication?
- A. Nausea
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Anorexia
- D. Cough and chest pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pulmonary reactions such as cough and chest pain are serious side effects associated with nitrofurantoin that require immediate discontinuation of the medication to prevent potential severe respiratory complications.
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