Nursing Elites

1. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for a client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Notifying the registered nurse
• B. Discontinuing the medication
• C. Informing the client that this is normal
• D. Applying a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to inform the client that local discomfort and burning are normal reactions to Mafenide acetate. This medication is used to treat burns by reducing bacteria in avascular tissues. Discontinuing the medication or applying a thinner film than prescribed is not necessary or recommended in this situation.

2. A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2 to 4 hours after administration
• B. 4 to 12 hours after administration
• C. 16 to 18 hours after administration
• D. 18 to 24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin with a peak action time of 4 to 12 hours after administration. During this period, the risk of hypoglycemic reactions is highest. It is important for the client to be aware of this timing to prevent, recognize, and manage hypoglycemia effectively.

3. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Constipation
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.

4. A healthcare professional prepares to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) to a client. Before administering the medication, the professional reviews the action of the medication and understands that it:

• A. Releases bicarbonate in exchange for primarily sodium ions
• B. Releases sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions
• C. Releases potassium ions in exchange for primarily sodium ions
• D. Releases sodium ions in exchange for primarily bicarbonate ions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, such as Kayexalate, is a cation exchange resin that functions by releasing sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions. This medication is commonly used to treat hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood.

5. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

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