Nursing Elites

1. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for a client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Notifying the registered nurse
• B. Discontinuing the medication
• C. Informing the client that this is normal
• D. Applying a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to inform the client that local discomfort and burning are normal reactions to Mafenide acetate. This medication is used to treat burns by reducing bacteria in avascular tissues. Discontinuing the medication or applying a thinner film than prescribed is not necessary or recommended in this situation.

2. Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL) is prescribed for a client with neurogenic bladder. Which sign would indicate a possible toxic effect related to this medication?

• A. Pallor
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Restlessness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of toxicity related to oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL) include central nervous system excitation, such as nervousness, restlessness, hallucinations, and irritability. Other signs of toxicity may include hypotension or hypertension, confusion, tachycardia, a flushed or red face, and signs of respiratory depression. Restlessness is a sign of central nervous system excitation, which can indicate a possible toxic effect of this medication.

3. A client is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing intervention?

• A. Monitor for renal failure.
• B. Monitor psychosocial status.
• C. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
• D. Have heparin sodium available.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client receiving tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase) for an acute myocardial infarction is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Alteplase is a thrombolytic medication that can lead to hemorrhage as a complication. Therefore, closely monitoring the client for any signs of bleeding is essential to promptly address and manage this potential adverse effect.

4. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the medication teaching?

• A. I will avoid potassium-rich foods.
• B. I will not use a salt substitute.
• C. I will monitor my weight daily.
• D. I will increase my fluid intake as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is 'I will avoid potassium-rich foods.' Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia if potassium intake is not regulated. Therefore, avoiding potassium-rich foods is crucial to prevent this complication. Using a salt substitute can also increase potassium levels. Monitoring weight daily is essential in heart failure management, but it is not specific to spironolactone. Increasing fluid intake as prescribed is generally recommended for heart failure management but is not directly related to spironolactone use.

5. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

• A. At bedtime
• B. After lunch
• C. With supper
• D. Before breakfast

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

Similar Questions