Nursing Elites

1. The GIFT technique is recommended for which of the following females?

• A. Females who cannot produce an ovum
• B. Females who cannot provide a suitable environment for fertilization
• C. Females who cannot retain the embryo inside the uterus
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' The GIFT technique is recommended for females who cannot produce an ovum, provide a suitable environment for fertilization, or retain the embryo inside the uterus. This technique involves transferring the unfertilized eggs and sperm directly into the fallopian tube, bypassing the need for the ovum to travel through the fallopian tube. Choices A, B, and C all represent different scenarios where the GIFT technique would be a suitable option, making option D the correct choice.

2. Amniocentesis, a prenatal diagnostic test used to determine fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities, is based on:

• A. The karyotyping of the amniotic fluid
• B. Chorionic villus sampling
• C. Umbilical cord blood sampling
• D. Ultrasound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid, which is extracted from the amniotic sac surrounding the developing fetus. This fluid contains cells shed by the fetus, which can be cultured and analyzed to obtain a karyotype, providing information about the fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the chorionic villi from the placenta, not the amniotic fluid; umbilical cord blood sampling is typically used for other purposes like assessing the baby's blood for infections or genetic disorders; and ultrasound is a diagnostic imaging technique that does not involve the analysis of fetal cells for genetic information.

3. Which statement accurately describes the female pelvis?

• A. Gynaecoid pelvis has a wedge-shaped inlet
• B. Platypelloid pelvis has an oval inlet
• C. Anthropoid pelvis has a long narrow oval inlet
• D. Android pelvis is wedge-shaped

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the Platypelloid pelvis indeed has an oval inlet. Gynaecoid pelvis, not mentioned in the choices, has a round inlet. Anthropoid pelvis has a long, narrow oval inlet, which makes choice C incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as the Android pelvis is actually heart-shaped with a narrowed inlet.

4. Outlet of the true pelvis anteriorly bounded by:

• A. Ischiopubic arch (T)
• B. Linea terminalis (F)
• C. Coccyx (T)
• D. Promontory of the sacrum (F)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ischiopubic arch. The outlet of the true pelvis is indeed anteriorly bounded by the ischiopubic arch, which consists of the ischium and the pubic bones. This structure forms the lower boundary of the pelvic outlet. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect. The linea terminalis (pelvic brim) forms the upper boundary of the true pelvis, the coccyx is part of the bony pelvis but does not bound the pelvic outlet anteriorly, and the promontory of the sacrum is located in the posterior part of the pelvis, not the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet.

5. Polymenorrhoea is defined as:

• A. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 35 days
• B. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 35 days
• C. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 21 days
• D. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 21 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Polymenorrhoea is defined as menstruation that occurs at intervals shorter than 21 days. Choice A is incorrect because it describes menstruation at intervals less than 35 days. Choice B is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 35 days. Choice D is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 21 days.

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