Nursing Elites

1. Abortion is defined as:

• A. Bleeding per vaginum in early pregnancy
• B. Willingness to terminate pregnancy
• C. Expulsion of products of conception after the 28th week of gestation
• D. Expulsion of products of conception before the 28th week of gestation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abortion is defined as the expulsion of products of conception before the 28th week of gestation. Choice A is incorrect as it describes bleeding in early pregnancy, not the definition of abortion. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to the willingness to terminate a pregnancy rather than the actual act of expulsion. Choice C is incorrect as it defines abortion as the expulsion of products of conception after the 28th week of gestation, which is considered a stillbirth.

2. Polymenorrhoea is defined as:

• A. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 35 days
• B. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 35 days
• C. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 21 days
• D. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 21 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Polymenorrhoea is defined as menstruation that occurs at intervals shorter than 21 days. Choice A is incorrect because it describes menstruation at intervals less than 35 days. Choice B is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 35 days. Choice D is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 21 days.

3. Which of the following are types of induced abortions?

• A. Therapeutic abortion
• B. Missed abortion
• C. Inevitable abortion
• D. Threatened abortion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, therapeutic abortion, which is a type of induced abortion performed for medical reasons. Missed abortion, inevitable abortion, and threatened abortion are types of spontaneous abortions, not induced abortions. Missed abortion refers to a non-viable pregnancy, inevitable abortion is a miscarriage that cannot be stopped, and threatened abortion is when there is bleeding during pregnancy without cervical dilation.

4. Which structure maintains the uterus in an anteverted and anteflexed position?

• A. Round ligaments
• B. Broad ligaments
• C. Cardinal ligaments
• D. Pubocervical ligaments

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Round ligaments. The round ligaments are responsible for maintaining the uterus in an anteverted and anteflexed position. These ligaments attach from the sides of the uterus and extend through the inguinal canal to the labia majora. The other choices, Broad ligaments, Cardinal ligaments, and Pubocervical ligaments, have different functions and attachments within the pelvis. Broad ligaments are a double layer of peritoneum that encloses the uterus and supports the uterine tubes. Cardinal ligaments provide support to the cervix and upper vagina. Pubocervical ligaments support the cervix and bladder.

5. Which group of the population does the Maternal nutrition component of IRH improve?

• A. Women and adolescent girls
• B. Pregnant women alone
• C. Pregnant women and all children under five
• D. All adolescents

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Women and adolescent girls. Maternal nutrition programs typically target women of reproductive age and adolescent girls to improve their health outcomes. Option B is incorrect because maternal nutrition initiatives extend beyond just pregnant women. Option C is incorrect because the focus is not on all children under five but specifically on women and adolescent girls. Option D is incorrect because the program does not target all adolescents, but rather women and adolescent girls.

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