HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. What is the area of the uterus where the fallopian tubes are inserted known as?
- A. Fundus
- B. Corpus or body
- C. Cavity
- D. Cornua
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Cornua. The cornua refers to the upper, horn-like parts of the uterus where the fallopian tubes are inserted. The fundus (choice A) is the rounded top portion of the uterus, the corpus or body (choice B) is the main part of the uterus excluding the cervix and fundus, and the cavity (choice C) refers to the internal space within the uterus. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically denote the area where the fallopian tubes are inserted.
2. Which of the following is included in a pelvic examination?
- A. Inspection of internal genitalia
- B. Inspection of the cervix and vaginal wall
- C. Palpation of the vagina and vaginal cervix by digital examination
- D. Rectal examination
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A pelvic examination involves the inspection of the cervix and vaginal wall. This is typically done to assess the health of the reproductive organs and screen for any abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while palpation and digital examination may be part of a pelvic exam, the specific focus on the cervix and vaginal wall is a key component that distinguishes it from other types of examinations.
3. Which part of the female reproductive system remains blocked after tubectomy?
- A. Fallopian tube
- B. Cervix
- C. Uterine cavity
- D. None
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After a tubectomy procedure, the Fallopian tube remains blocked. This is the correct answer because tubectomy involves the surgical blocking or sealing of the Fallopian tubes to prevent eggs from reaching the uterus, thus preventing pregnancy. Choice B, the cervix, is incorrect as it is not blocked during a tubectomy. Choice C, the uterine cavity, is also incorrect as the procedure does not involve blocking this part of the reproductive system. Choice D, none, is incorrect as the purpose of tubectomy is to block the Fallopian tubes.
4. What is the definition of incomplete abortion?
- A. Part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, is expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained.
- B. All products of conception are expelled, and there is minimal per vaginal bleeding.
- C. The cervix is closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus.
- D. The cervix dilates, and the products of conception are expelled.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Incomplete abortion is defined as part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, being expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained. This is the correct definition, making option A the right choice. Option B is incorrect as it describes a complete abortion. Option C is incorrect because in incomplete abortion, the products of conception are not retained in the uterus, and the cervix may be open. Option D is incorrect as it describes a situation more likely to be seen in an inevitable abortion.
5. Causes of metrorrhagia include:
- A. Cervical carcinoma
- B. Uterine polyp
- C. Cervical endometriosis
- D. Infections like Chlamydia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metrorrhagia refers to irregular menstrual bleeding that occurs between periods. Cervical carcinoma, a type of cancer that develops in the cervix, can lead to metrorrhagia. Uterine polyps, which are growths attached to the inner wall of the uterus, can also cause abnormal bleeding. While infections like Chlamydia can cause abnormal vaginal bleeding, they are not common causes of metrorrhagia. Cervical endometriosis, although a possible gynecological condition, is not a typical cause of metrorrhagia. Therefore, the correct answer is cervical carcinoma as it is a known cause of metrorrhagia, making the other options incorrect.
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