HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?
- A. Continue gabapentin.
- B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
- C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
- D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.
2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding is most indicative of this diagnosis?
- A. Epigastric pain that radiates to the back.
- B. Abdominal pain with guarding.
- C. Nausea and vomiting.
- D. Increased bowel sounds in all quadrants.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Epigastric pain that radiates to the back (A) is the hallmark assessment finding of acute pancreatitis. The pancreas lies retroperitoneally in the upper abdomen, so inflammation often causes severe epigastric pain that radiates through to the back. While abdominal pain with guarding (B), nausea and vomiting (C), and increased bowel sounds (D) can also be present in acute pancreatitis, they are less specific and may be seen in various other gastrointestinal conditions. Therefore, the most indicative finding for acute pancreatitis is epigastric pain that radiates to the back.
3. A female UAP is assigned to take the vital signs of a client with pertussis for whom droplet precautions have been implemented. The UAP requests a change in assignment because she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Advise the UAP to wear a standard face mask to take vital signs and then get fitted for a filter mask before providing personal care.
- B. Send the UAP to be fitted for a particulate filter mask immediately so she can provide care to this client.
- C. Instruct the UAP that a standard mask is sufficient for the provision of care for the assigned client.
- D. Before changing assignments, determine which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. For droplet precautions, such as in the case of pertussis, a standard face mask is sufficient for protection. Particulate filter masks are required for airborne precautions, not for droplet precautions. Therefore, the UAP can proceed with taking the vital signs using a standard mask without the need for a particulate filter mask. Choice A is incorrect because the UAP does not need to get fitted for a particulate filter mask before providing care in this situation. Choice B is incorrect as fitting for a particulate filter mask is not necessary for droplet precautions. Choice D is also incorrect because determining which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks is not relevant to the UAP's situation with the client on droplet precautions. It is important for healthcare workers to understand the appropriate use of personal protective equipment based on the type of precautions in place to provide safe and effective care to clients.
4. When assessing a client with a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit, the nurse notes that the client's skin over the sternum 'tents' when gently pinched. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Confirm the finding by further assessing the client for jugular vein distention.
- B. Offer the client high-protein snacks between regularly scheduled mealtimes.
- C. Continue the planned nursing interventions to restore the client's fluid volume.
- D. Change the plan of care to include interventions for impaired skin integrity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the nurse observes that the client's skin over the sternum 'tents' when gently pinched, it is a classic sign of fluid volume deficit. This finding indicates dehydration and the need to restore the client's fluid volume. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse is to continue the planned nursing interventions aimed at addressing the fluid deficit. Choice A is incorrect as jugular vein distention is associated with fluid overload, not deficit. Choice B is incorrect as offering high-protein snacks does not directly address the fluid volume deficit. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to address the fluid deficit before addressing skin integrity issues.
5. After abdominal surgery, an adult is now alert and oriented. What position is most appropriate for the client?
- A. Semi-Fowler's
- B. Prone
- C. Supine
- D. Sim's
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate position for a client following abdominal surgery is Semi-Fowler's. This position promotes greater thoracic expansion and reduces pressure on the suture line, aiding in respiratory function and preventing strain on the incision site. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Prone position (Choice B) would not be suitable after abdominal surgery as it can put pressure on the abdomen. Supine position (Choice C) may cause discomfort and strain on the incision area. Sim's position (Choice D) is primarily used for rectal exams and enemas, which are unrelated to the needs post-abdominal surgery.
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