Nursing Elites

1. In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?

• A. Continue gabapentin.
• B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
• C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
• D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.

2. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper, and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
• B. Complete a functional assessment of the client’s self-care abilities
• C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
• D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial step the nurse should take when faced with skin breakdown over the sacral area of the client is to determine the size and depth of the affected area. Assessing and documenting these aspects are crucial before initiating any treatment. This evaluation will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate care plan to address the skin breakdown effectively. Options A, B, and C are not the first steps to take in this situation. While establishing a toileting schedule and completing a functional assessment are important, assessing the size and depth of the skin breakdown is the priority to initiate proper treatment. Applying a barrier ointment without assessing the extent of the breakdown may not address the underlying issue effectively.

3. A client is receiving intravenous (IV) fluids postoperatively. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider?

• A. The client reports pain at the IV site
• B. The client’s blood pressure is elevated
• C. The client has swelling at the IV site
• D. The client’s heart rate is irregular

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Swelling at the IV site may indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which requires stopping the IV infusion and notifying the healthcare provider. Infiltration occurs when the IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing swelling and potential damage. It is crucial to act promptly to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety.

4. A male client is on contact precautions due to an infected draining wound and is being discharged home. The client lives at home with his wife and their adolescent daughter. What discharge instruction should the nurse include for the client?

• A. Use disposable plates and utensils.
• B. Stay in a room with the door closed.
• C. Dispose of soiled dressings in plastic bags that are securely closed.
• D. Others who are in the same room with the client should wear a mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is on contact precautions due to an infected draining wound, it is important to prevent contact with wound secretions. Therefore, disposing of soiled dressings in securely closed plastic bags helps contain and prevent the spread of infectious material, reducing the risk of transmission to others in the household.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer regular insulin IV.
• B. Administer IV fluids at 250 ml/hr.
• C. Administer sodium bicarbonate IV push.
• D. Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV push.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering regular insulin IV (A) is the initial intervention for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels. This is vital in reversing the ketosis and acidosis seen in DKA. Administering IV fluids (B) helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering sodium bicarbonate (C) and furosemide (D) may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but insulin administration takes precedence in the management of DKA.

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