the client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase pancrease mt the nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pharmacology HESI

1. The client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pancrelipase (Pancrease MT) is a pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy used to aid digestion in clients with pancreatic insufficiency. One of the key goals of pancrelipase therapy is to reduce the amount of undigested fat in the stool, known as steatorrhea. Therefore, the nurse should evaluate the effectiveness of pancrelipase by looking for a reduction in steatorrhea, indicating improved digestion and absorption of fats.

2. Prednisone is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin daily. Which of the following prescription changes does the nurse anticipate during therapy with prednisone?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prednisone is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily, the nurse should anticipate an increased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin. Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, can elevate blood glucose levels, requiring an increase in insulin dosage to maintain optimal blood sugar control.

3. A client is being cared for by a nurse due to severe back pain, and codeine sulfate has been prescribed. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care while the client is taking this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed codeine sulfate, it is essential to monitor bowel activity because this medication can lead to constipation. Therefore, monitoring bowel function is crucial to prevent or manage any potential gastrointestinal issues that may arise.

4. A client has just taken a dose of trimethobenzamide (Tigan). The nurse plans to monitor this client for relief of:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Trimethobenzamide (Tigan) is an antiemetic medication used to treat nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the nurse would monitor the client for relief of nausea and vomiting after taking this medication.

5. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

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