Nursing Elites

1. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is taught to take isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) at 5 PM each day. The client should be instructed that the greatest risk of hypoglycemia will occur at about what time?

• A. 11 AM, shortly before lunch.
• B. 1 PM, shortly after lunch.
• C. 6 PM, shortly after dinner.
• D. 1 AM, while sleeping.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 1 AM, while sleeping. Isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) peaks around 6-8 hours after administration, which increases the risk of hypoglycemia during the night. Choice A, 11 AM, shortly before lunch, is incorrect because the peak effect of NPH insulin occurs much later. Choice B, 1 PM, shortly after lunch, is incorrect as it is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice C, 6 PM, shortly after dinner, is also incorrect because the peak risk of hypoglycemia with NPH insulin occurs later in the night.

2. A client with a family history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Nocturia
• B. Flank pain
• C. Increased abdominal girth
• D. B & C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with PKD commonly present with flank pain and increased abdominal girth due to abdominal distention caused by cysts. Bloody urine is also a common symptom due to tissue damage from PKD. Nocturia and dysuria are not typical manifestations of PKD. Constipation is not directly associated with PKD. Therefore, the correct choices are flank pain and increased abdominal girth, making option D the correct answer.

3. The patient is receiving a high dose of tetracycline (Sumycin). Which laboratory values should the nurse monitor while caring for this patient?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
• B. Complete blood counts
• C. Electrolytes
• D. Liver enzyme levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: High doses of tetracyclines can lead to nephrotoxicity, especially when given along with other nephrotoxic drugs. Renal function tests, such as monitoring blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels, should be performed to assess for nephrotoxicity. Monitoring complete blood counts (choice B) is not directly related to tetracycline therapy. Checking electrolytes (choice C) is important but not the priority when monitoring for tetracycline-induced nephrotoxicity. Monitoring liver enzyme levels (choice D) is not typically indicated in the context of tetracycline therapy.

4. A 68-year-old client on day 2 after hip surgery has no cardiac history but reports having chest heaviness. The first nursing action should be to:

• A. Inquire about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Offer pain medication for the chest heaviness.
• D. Inform the physician of the chest heaviness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first nursing action when a client reports chest heaviness post-hip surgery is to gather more information through assessment. Inquiring about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness is crucial to determine the cause. This approach helps the nurse to gather essential data to make an informed decision regarding the client's care. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be indicated based on assessment findings, but it is crucial to assess first. Offering pain medication (Choice C) without further assessment is premature and may mask symptoms. Informing the physician (Choice D) should be done after a thorough assessment to provide comprehensive information for appropriate medical decision-making.

5. Polyethylene glycol–electrolyte solution (GoLYTELY) is prescribed for a hospitalized client scheduled for a colonoscopy. The client begins to experience diarrhea after drinking the solution. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Calling the physician
• B. Administering a cleansing enema
• C. Documenting the diarrhea in the medical record
• D. Giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse in this situation is to document the diarrhea in the medical record. Polyethylene glycol–electrolyte solution (GoLYTELY) is a bowel evacuant used to cleanse the bowel before a colonoscopy. It is expected to cause mild diarrhea, which is a normal response to the medication. The diarrhea helps clear the bowel in preparation for the procedure. Calling the physician is not necessary unless there are complications. Administering a cleansing enema or giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts are not appropriate actions as they are not indicated for managing the expected diarrhea caused by GoLYTELY.

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