Nursing Elites

1. The patient will begin taking penicillin G procaine (Wycillin). The nurse notes that the solution is milky in color. What action will the nurse take?

• A. Call the pharmacist and report the milky color.
• B. Add normal saline to dilute the medication.
• C. Call the physician and report the milky appearance.
• D. Administer the medication as ordered by the physician.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the medication as ordered by the physician. Penicillin G procaine (Wycillin) is known to have a milky appearance, which is normal. The milky color should not raise concerns for the nurse as it is an expected characteristic of this medication. Calling the pharmacist (choice A) or the physician (choice C) unnecessarily would delay the administration of the medication. Adding normal saline to dilute the medication (choice B) is not appropriate and could alter the medication's effectiveness. Therefore, the nurse should proceed with administering the medication as prescribed without any further action based on its milky appearance.

2. A client with a chest tube attached to a closed drainage system has undergone a chest x-ray, which revealed that the affected lung is fully reexpanded. The nurse anticipates that the next assessment of the chest tube system will reveal:

• A. No fluctuation in the water seal chamber
• B. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
• C. Increased drainage in the collection chamber
• D. Continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the client's lung is fully reexpanded, the chest tube drainage system will no longer be actively draining, and there will be no fluctuation in the water seal chamber. Option B, continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, indicates an air leak in the system, which is not expected when the lung is fully expanded. Option C, increased drainage in the collection chamber, would not be expected when the lung is reexpanded as there should be minimal to no drainage. Option D, continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber, would not be appropriate when the lung is fully reexpanded and the chest tube is typically on a water seal system at this point to promote reexpansion and prevent air from entering the pleural space.

3. A client is vomiting. For which acid-base imbalance does the nurse assess the client?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client who is vomiting, the loss of gastric fluid containing hydrochloric acid can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is caused by the loss of acids such as hydrochloric acid from the body. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse should assess the client for metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because vomiting does not typically lead to metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, or respiratory alkalosis.

4. Which client should the nurse recognize as most likely to experience sleep apnea?

• A. Middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly.
• B. Obese older male client with a short, thick neck.
• C. Adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy.
• D. School-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sleep apnea is characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep, often due to a collapsed or blocked airway. Obesity and having a short, thick neck are risk factors for sleep apnea because excess fat around the neck can obstruct the airway. Option A (middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly) does not present as a common risk factor for sleep apnea. Option C (adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy) may have had tonsils removed, which could reduce the risk of sleep apnea. Option D (school-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder) is not directly associated with an increased risk of sleep apnea.

5. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a “shift to the left” in the client’s white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells.
• B. Notify the provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics.
• C. Collaborate with the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to strain the client’s urine for renal calculi.
• D. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A “shift to the left” in a white blood cell count indicates an increase in band cells, which is typically associated with urosepsis. In this scenario, the nurse should notify the provider and initiate IV antibiotics as a left shift is often seen in severe infections like urosepsis. Requesting a differential analysis on white blood cells would not be the immediate action needed in response to a left shift. Collaborating to strain urine for renal calculi is unrelated to the situation of a left shift in white blood cells due to urosepsis. Assessing for allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock is not the priority as a left shift is not indicative of an allergic response; it is associated with an increase in band cells, not eosinophils.

Similar Questions