Nursing Elites

1. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Temperature of 101.5°F
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• D. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg in a client with sepsis is concerning for septic shock, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Hypotension is a severe manifestation of sepsis that can lead to poor tissue perfusion and organ failure. While the other assessment findings such as an elevated temperature, increased heart rate, and respiratory rate are also common in sepsis, hypotension is particularly alarming as it indicates a critical state of shock and necessitates urgent medical attention.

3. The nurse discovers that an elderly client with no history of cardiac or renal disease has an elevated serum magnesium level. To further investigate the cause of this electrolyte imbalance, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the client's medical history?

• A. Frequency of laxative use for chronic constipation
• B. Dietary intake of magnesium-rich foods
• C. Use of magnesium-containing supplements
• D. History of alcohol use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Frequent use of magnesium-containing laxatives can lead to hypermagnesemia, particularly in elderly clients. Option B, dietary intake of magnesium-rich foods, may contribute to elevated serum magnesium levels but is less likely the cause in this scenario. Option C, the use of magnesium-containing supplements, can also contribute to hypermagnesemia but is not as common in elderly clients without a history of using such supplements. Option D, history of alcohol use, is less relevant to the development of elevated serum magnesium levels compared to laxative use for chronic constipation.

4. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and will no longer have health insurance through her place of employment. Which agency should the client be referred to by the employee health nurse for health insurance needs?

• A. Woman, Infants, and Children program
• B. Medicaid
• C. Medicare
• D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act provision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Medicare. Title XVII of the Social Security Act of 1965 created the Medicare Program to provide medical insurance for individuals who are 65 years or older, disabled, or have permanent kidney failure. Medicare is the appropriate agency to refer a 66-year-old woman who is retiring and losing her employment-based health insurance. Choice A, the Woman, Infants, and Children program, is not suitable for this scenario as it provides assistance for low-income pregnant women, breastfeeding women, and young children. Choice B, Medicaid, is a program that helps individuals with low income and resources cover medical costs, which may not be applicable to this woman's situation. Choice D, the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act provision, known as COBRA, allows employees to continue their group health insurance coverage after leaving their job but may not be the best option for this woman in this case.

5. A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is placed on a protein-restricted diet. Which nutritional goal supports this dietary change?

• A. Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decrease the risk of hyperkalemia
• C. Promote healing of injured nephrons
• D. Promote the elimination of albumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN). A protein-restricted diet is essential for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea nitrogen, as the kidneys cannot effectively excrete it. This helps in managing the accumulation of waste products in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not directly related to a protein-restricted diet but focuses on managing potassium levels. Choice C is not a direct nutritional goal of a protein-restricted diet but aims at supporting kidney function. Choice D is not a target of a protein-restricted diet but relates more to managing protein loss in the urine.

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