Nursing Elites

1. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

2. A male client is having abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, and is asking for additional pain medication for right lower quadrant pain (9/10). Two hours ago, he received hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5/7.50 mg. His vital signs are elevated from the previous hour: temperature 97.8 F, heart rate 102 beats per minute, respiration 20 breaths per minute. His abdomen is swollen, the groin access site is tender, peripheral pulses are present, but the left leg is larger than the right. Preoperatively, clopidogrel was prescribed for a history of previous peripheral stents. Another nurse is holding manual pressure on the femoral arterial access site which may be leaking into the abdomen. What data is needed to make this report complete?

• A. Client's lungs are clear bilaterally, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
• B. The surgeon needs to see the client immediately to evaluate the situation.
• C. Left peripheral pulses were present only by Doppler pre-procedure.
• D. Client's history includes multiple back surgeries and chronic pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immediate evaluation by the surgeon is necessary due to the possibility of an internal hemorrhage, which is a life-threatening condition. Choice A is incorrect as lung status and oxygen saturation are not the priority in this situation. Choice C is not relevant to the current urgent issue. Choice D, while providing additional history, is not pertinent to the immediate concern of a potential internal hemorrhage post angioplasty and stent placement.

3. During the initial visit, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present.
• B. Develop a client needs assessment and review it with the caregiver.
• C. Evaluate the caregiver's ability to care for the client's needs.
• D. Review with the caregiver the interventions provided each day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement during the initial visit is to determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present. This is crucial for ensuring continuous and adequate care, especially for a bed-bound client with multiple sclerosis who relies heavily on the caregiver. While developing a client needs assessment (choice B) and evaluating the caregiver's ability (choice C) are important, understanding the care plan in the caregiver's absence takes precedence. Reviewing daily interventions with the caregiver (choice D) is valuable but not as critical as knowing the care plan during the caregiver's absence.

4. The nurse is reinforcing home care instructions with a client who is being discharged following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's instructions?

• A. Avoid strenuous activity for 6 weeks.
• B. Report fresh blood in the urine.
• C. Take acetaminophen for fever of 101°F.
• D. Consume 6 to 8 glasses of water daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reporting fresh blood in the urine is crucial following a TURP procedure as it may indicate a complication such as bleeding or clot formation. This symptom requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of post-TURP care, but identifying and reporting fresh blood in the urine take precedence due to its association with potential serious complications.

5. When assessing a client with left-sided heart failure, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• D. Administer morphine as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial intervention for a client with left-sided heart failure. This action is crucial in improving oxygen levels and reducing pulmonary congestion. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function in heart failure, but it is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygenation. Administering loop diuretics helps manage fluid overload but should come after addressing oxygen needs. Morphine may be indicated for pain or anxiety in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

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