HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
- D. Obtain a sputum culture.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy as prescribed is the initial priority when managing an exacerbation of COPD. In COPD exacerbations, the primary concern is hypoxemia due to impaired gas exchange. Administering oxygen helps to improve oxygenation and prevent further complications. Elevating the head of the bed can aid in breathing comfort but is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygen supply. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is important but comes after ensuring oxygenation. Obtaining a sputum culture is relevant for identifying pathogens but is not the immediate priority in addressing hypoxemia.
2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
- B. Temperature of 100.4°F
- C. Heart rate of 120 beats per minute
- D. Urine output of 30 ml/hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with septic shock, a heart rate of 120 beats per minute is a critical clinical finding that requires immediate intervention. A rapid heart rate can indicate worsening sepsis and inadequate tissue perfusion. Correcting the underlying cause of the tachycardia and stabilizing the heart rate is crucial in managing septic shock. The other options, while important, do not represent an immediate threat to the patient's condition. A blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg may be expected in septic shock, a temperature of 100.4°F is mildly elevated, and a urine output of 30 ml/hour, though decreased, may not be an immediate concern in the context of septic shock.
3. When preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for a client admitted to the surgical unit with symptoms of a possible intestinal obstruction, which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees
- B. Administer an antiemetic
- C. Prepare the client for surgery
- D. Provide oral care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees is essential when inserting an NG tube. This position helps facilitate the passage of the tube through the esophagus into the stomach and reduces the risk of aspiration. Administering an antiemetic may be necessary to control nausea or vomiting, but it is not the primary intervention when inserting an NG tube. Preparing the client for surgery is not indicated solely for the insertion of an NG tube. Providing oral care is important for maintaining oral hygiene but is not directly related to inserting an NG tube.
4. An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker. What is the best initial response by the nurse?
- A. Explain that this is an expected occurrence with aging.
- B. Observe the lower extremities for signs of muscle atrophy.
- C. Review the medical record for recent diagnostic test results.
- D. Ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse when the client reports muscle weakness is to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This approach allows the nurse to gain a better understanding of the client's experience, the extent of weakness, any associated symptoms, and potential triggers. By actively listening to the client's description, the nurse can gather valuable information that will aid in a comprehensive assessment and development of a tailored care plan. Choice A is incorrect because assuming muscle weakness is solely due to aging without further assessment can lead to overlooking potential underlying causes. Choice B is incorrect as observing for signs of muscle atrophy should come after gathering information directly from the client. Choice C is incorrect as reviewing diagnostic test results should not be the initial step when the client's current experience is being shared.
5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.
- B. Administer intravenous insulin and glucose.
- C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
- D. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous insulin and glucose. In the presence of hyperkalemia, the priority intervention is to shift potassium back into the cells to lower serum levels. Insulin, in combination with glucose, helps drive potassium intracellularly. Administering calcium gluconate (choice A) is used to stabilize myocardial cell membranes but does not address the underlying cause of hyperkalemia. Administering sodium bicarbonate (choice C) is not the initial treatment for hyperkalemia. Loop diuretics (choice D) may be used later to enhance potassium excretion but are not the primary intervention for acute hyperkalemia.
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