HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI
1. Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client's history?
- A. Neuralgia
- B. Insomnia
- C. Use of nitroglycerin
- D. Use of multivitamins
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide and is contraindicated with the concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Using nitroglycerin together with Viagra can lead to severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse, making it unsafe to combine both medications.
2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed glipizide (Glucotrol). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication before a meal.
- B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
- C. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication before bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed glipizide (Glucotrol) is to monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. Glipizide stimulates insulin release from the pancreas, which can lead to hypoglycemia. It is usually taken before a meal, not necessarily on an empty stomach. Alcohol consumption should be avoided to prevent interactions with the medication. Taking the medication before bedtime is not the typical recommendation.
3. A client is taking ticlopidine hydrochloride (Ticlid). The nurse tells the client to avoid which of the following while taking this medication?
- A. Vitamin C
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- D. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ticlopidine hydrochloride is a platelet aggregation inhibitor. Aspirin or any aspirin-containing product should be avoided as they can precipitate or aggravate bleeding by affecting platelet function and increasing the risk of bleeding complications.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular dose of penicillin to a client with a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin. Which action should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Check the medication order for accuracy.
- B. Have an epinephrine injection available.
- C. Administer a test dose to check for a reaction.
- D. Ask the client about any allergies.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When dealing with a client who has a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin, the priority action for the healthcare professional is to have an epinephrine injection readily available in case of a severe allergic reaction. In such cases, the immediate focus is on being prepared to manage a potentially life-threatening situation. While checking the medication order for accuracy, administering a test dose, and asking the client about allergies are essential steps in medication administration, the first priority is ensuring the availability of epinephrine to address a severe allergic reaction promptly.
5. Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is prescribed for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. The nurse monitors the client after medication administration for which therapeutic response?
- A. Decreased urinary output
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Decreased peripheral edema
- D. Decreased blood glucose level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Desmopressin promotes renal conservation of water by increasing the permeability of kidney collecting ducts to water, resulting in decreased urinary output. Therefore, the therapeutic response expected after administering desmopressin for diabetes insipidus is a reduction in urinary output.
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