Nursing Elites

1. Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client's history?

• A. Neuralgia
• B. Insomnia
• C. Use of nitroglycerin
• D. Use of multivitamins

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide and is contraindicated with the concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Using nitroglycerin together with Viagra can lead to severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse, making it unsafe to combine both medications.

2. A client is taking docusate sodium (Colace). The nurse monitors which of the following to determine whether the client is experiencing a therapeutic effect from this medication?

• A. Abdominal pain
• B. Reduction in steatorrhea
• C. Hematest-negative stools
• D. Regular bowel movements

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The therapeutic effect of docusate sodium (Colace) is to soften stools and promote regular bowel movements, making option D the correct choice. Monitoring for regular bowel movements would indicate that the medication is working as intended by relieving or preventing constipation. Options A, B, and C are not directly related to the therapeutic effect of docusate sodium. Abdominal pain (option A) is a symptom that might indicate a problem rather than a therapeutic effect. Reduction in steatorrhea (option B) and Hematest-negative stools (option C) are not specific outcomes associated with docusate sodium.

3. A client is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. The nurse notes redness and swelling at the site, along with a slowed infusion rate. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer pain medication to reduce discomfort.
• C. Apply ice and maintain the infusion rate as prescribed.
• D. Elevate the extremity of the IV site and slow the infusion rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site, and there are signs of extravasation such as redness and swelling, it is crucial to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Extravasation of antineoplastic medications can cause tissue damage, pain, and necrosis if they escape into surrounding tissues. Prompt action is necessary to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate management of the situation. Administering pain medication, applying ice, or elevating the extremity are not appropriate actions in cases of suspected extravasation. These actions do not address the underlying issue of potential tissue damage and necrosis that can occur due to the leakage of antineoplastic medication.

4. A client is receiving morphine sulfate subcutaneously for pain. Because morphine sulfate has been prescribed for this client, which nursing action would be included in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage fluid intake.
• B. Monitor the client's temperature.
• C. Maintain the client in a supine position.
• D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine sulfate suppresses the cough reflex, which can lead to the retention of secretions in the lungs. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe helps prevent pneumonia by clearing the airways of any accumulated secretions. This intervention is crucial in clients receiving morphine sulfate to maintain optimal respiratory function.

5. A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene (Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a response, based on the understanding that:

• A. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics.
• B. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide is less expensive, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective.
• D. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The combination of triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide is used because triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which helps retain potassium, while hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic, which promotes potassium excretion. This combination helps balance potassium levels in the body, preventing imbalances that can occur when using potassium-losing diuretics alone.

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