HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. During an admission assessment, a client informs the nurse that they take propylthiouracil (PTU) daily. Based on this information, the nurse suspects that the client has a history of:
- A. Myxedema
- B. Graves' disease
- C. Addison's disease
- D. Cushing's syndrome
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a medication commonly used to treat hyperthyroidism, including Graves' disease, which is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. The client mentioning the daily use of PTU indicates that they likely have a history of Graves' disease, as this medication helps manage the condition by reducing the production of thyroid hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Graves' disease. Choice A, Myxedema, is incorrect as it refers to a condition of severe hypothyroidism, the opposite of hyperthyroidism. Choices C and D, Addison's disease and Cushing's syndrome, respectively, are unrelated to the use of PTU or hyperthyroidism, making them incorrect choices.
2. A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene (Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a response, based on the understanding that:
- A. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics.
- B. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide is less expensive, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective.
- D. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The combination of triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide is used because triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which helps retain potassium, while hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic, which promotes potassium excretion. This combination helps balance potassium levels in the body, preventing imbalances that can occur when using potassium-losing diuretics alone.
3. A client is receiving intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin). Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Nausea
- B. Hearing loss
- C. Headache
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Gentamicin (Garamycin) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss. Hearing loss is a serious adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications or adjust the treatment regimen. Nausea, headache, and diarrhea are common side effects of gentamicin but are not as severe or urgent as hearing loss in this context.
4. A client has been prescribed cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which food item should the client avoid based on the medication's interaction?
- A. Red meats
- B. Orange juice
- C. Grapefruit juice
- D. Green, leafy vegetables
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Grapefruit juice should be avoided when taking cyclosporine because it inhibits the metabolism of the medication, leading to increased blood levels and a higher risk of toxicity. It is important for the client to follow this dietary instruction to ensure the safe and effective use of cyclosporine.
5. A client who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus has been stabilized with daily insulin injections. Which information should the nurse teach when carrying out plans for discharge?
- A. Keep insulin vials refrigerated at all times.
- B. Rotate the insulin injection sites systematically.
- C. Increase the amount of insulin before unusual exercise.
- D. Monitor the urine acetone level to determine the insulin dosage.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is stabilized with daily insulin injections, it is crucial to rotate the injection sites systematically. This practice helps prevent the development of lipodystrophy, which can affect insulin absorption and lead to inconsistent glucose control. Additionally, rotating sites minimizes discomfort and tissue damage, ensuring optimal insulin delivery and effectiveness.
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