HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. During an admission assessment, a client informs the nurse that they take propylthiouracil (PTU) daily. Based on this information, the nurse suspects that the client has a history of:
- A. Myxedema
- B. Graves' disease
- C. Addison's disease
- D. Cushing's syndrome
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a medication commonly used to treat hyperthyroidism, including Graves' disease, which is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. The client mentioning the daily use of PTU indicates that they likely have a history of Graves' disease, as this medication helps manage the condition by reducing the production of thyroid hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Graves' disease. Choice A, Myxedema, is incorrect as it refers to a condition of severe hypothyroidism, the opposite of hyperthyroidism. Choices C and D, Addison's disease and Cushing's syndrome, respectively, are unrelated to the use of PTU or hyperthyroidism, making them incorrect choices.
2. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is placed on drug therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). The client should be instructed to report which effect(s) of the medication to the healthcare provider?
- A. Reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids
- B. Bloody or blood-tinged urine
- C. Blurring of vision
- D. Weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a week
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin (Rifadin) commonly causes a reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect but should be reported to the healthcare provider for monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with rifampin therapy. Bloody or blood-tinged urine may indicate other issues such as urinary tract infection or kidney problems, blurring of vision may suggest eye problems, and significant weight gain could be related to various health conditions unrelated to rifampin.
3. A client with a history of closed head injury has a radial artery catheter in place and complains of numbness and pain distal to the insertion site. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the site for further complications.
- B. Promptly remove the catheter from the radial artery.
- C. Elevate the client’s arm above the heart.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider and prepare for surgery.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weak pulse and numbness distal to a radial artery catheter may indicate occlusion or damage to the artery, and immediate removal of the catheter is necessary to prevent complications. Therefore, promptly removing the catheter from the radial artery (Choice B) is the correct action. Monitoring the site (Choice A) would delay necessary intervention, elevating the client's arm (Choice C) may not address the underlying issue, and notifying the healthcare provider for surgery (Choice D) without removing the catheter promptly could lead to further complications.
4. When obtaining the health history of a client suspected of having bladder cancer, which question should the nurse ask to determine the client's risk factors?
- A. Do you smoke cigarettes?
- B. Do you consume alcohol?
- C. Do you use recreational drugs?
- D. Do you take any prescription drugs?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Do you smoke cigarettes?' Smoking is a major risk factor for bladder cancer. Cigarette smoke contains harmful chemicals that can accumulate in the urine and damage the lining of the bladder, increasing the risk of developing cancer. Alcohol use, recreational drug use, and most prescription drugs are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. It is important for the nurse to assess smoking history as a significant risk factor in determining the client's risk for bladder cancer.
5. During an annual physical at the corporate clinic, a male employee expresses to the RN that his high-stress job is causing trouble in his personal life. He mentions getting so angry while driving to and from work that he has considered 'getting even' with other drivers. How should the RN respond?
- A. “Anger is contagious and could lead to major confrontations.”
- B. “Try not to let your anger cause you to act impulsively.”
- C. “Expressing your anger to a stranger could lead to an unsafe situation.”
- D. “It seems like there are many situations that make you feel angry.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response for the RN is to advise the employee not to act impulsively when feeling angry. This approach helps the individual learn to manage anger in a constructive manner, reducing the likelihood of potential conflicts. Choice A is incorrect because although acknowledging that anger can escalate into confrontations is valid, it does not provide immediate guidance on managing the anger. Choice C focuses on the dangers of expressing anger to strangers but does not address the core issue of managing anger. Choice D simply acknowledges the employee's feelings without providing guidance on how to address the situation effectively.
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