HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Quizlet
1. What is the role of relaxin hormone?
- A. Relaxation of the symphysis pubis.
- B. Stimulation of milk production.
- C. Stimulating the development of the nipple and duct system in the breast.
- D. None of the above.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relaxation of the symphysis pubis. Relaxin hormone is responsible for loosening the ligaments in the pelvic area, particularly the symphysis pubis, to prepare for childbirth. Choice B, stimulation of milk production, is incorrect as this is primarily regulated by prolactin. Choice C, stimulating the development of the nipple and duct system in the breast, is incorrect as this is mainly influenced by estrogen and progesterone during pregnancy. Therefore, the correct role of relaxin hormone is the relaxation of the symphysis pubis.
2. The nurse is discussing with a group of students the disease Kawasaki. What statement made by a student about Kawasaki disease is incorrect?
- A. It is also called mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome because it affects the mucous membranes (inside the mouth, throat, and nose), skin, and lymph nodes.
- B. In the second phase of the disease, findings include peeling of the skin on the hands and feet with joint and abdominal pain.
- C. Kawasaki disease occurs most often in boys, children younger than age 5, and children of Hispanic descent.
- D. Initially findings are a sudden high fever, usually above 104 degrees Fahrenheit, which lasts 1 to 2 weeks.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Kawasaki disease occurs most often in boys and children younger than age 5, but there is no specific predisposition to children of Hispanic descent. Choice A is accurate, as Kawasaki disease does affect mucous membranes, skin, and lymph nodes. Choice B is correct, as peeling of the skin on the hands and feet with joint and abdominal pain are findings in the second phase of the disease. Choice D is accurate since initially, there is a sudden high fever that lasts 1 to 2 weeks.
3. The nurse is caring for four clients with chronic kidney disease. Which client should the nurse assess first upon initial rounding?
- A. Woman with a blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg
- B. Client with Kussmaul respirations
- C. Man with skin itching from head to toe
- D. Client with halitosis and stomatitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Kussmaul respirations indicate a worsening of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The client is increasing the rate and depth of breathing to excrete carbon dioxide through the lungs, a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis common in CKD. Hypertension, as in choice A, is a common finding in CKD due to volume overload and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Skin itching, as in choice C, is related to calcium-phosphate imbalances seen in CKD. Halitosis and stomatitis, as in choice D, are common in CKD due to uremia, leading to the formation of ammonia. However, Kussmaul respirations indicate a more urgent need for assessment as they suggest impending respiratory distress and metabolic derangement, requiring immediate attention.
4. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future?
- A. Involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision.
- B. Encourage staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements.
- C. Critically analyze and discuss advances in practice with other nurses on staff.
- D. Actively listen to the recommendations of others.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best method for communicating a vision for the future is to involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. This approach fosters ownership and commitment among team members, as they feel part of the vision-building process and understand how their daily tasks contribute to achieving that vision. Choice B, encouraging staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements, is important for fostering communication but doesn't directly address creating and communicating a vision. Choice C, critically analyzing and discussing advances in practice with other nurses, focuses on professional development and knowledge sharing rather than specifically communicating a future vision. Choice D, actively listening to recommendations, is valuable for gathering input but may not be sufficient on its own for effectively communicating a future vision.
5. A client with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is being cared for by a nurse. Which data warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L)
- B. Dry skin with poor skin turgor
- C. Apical rate of 110 beats per minute
- D. Polyuria and excessive thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum sodium level of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L) is dangerously high and indicates severe dehydration, requiring immediate intervention to prevent neurological damage. The other options are not as critical as high serum sodium levels, which can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and death if not promptly addressed. Dry skin with poor skin turgor and polyuria with excessive thirst are common findings in clients with Diabetes Insipidus and should be managed but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. An apical heart rate of 110 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which could be related to dehydration but is not as urgent as addressing the severe hypernatremia.