Nursing Elites

1. What is the role of relaxin hormone?

• A. Relaxation of the symphysis pubis.
• B. Stimulation of milk production.
• C. Stimulating the development of the nipple and duct system in the breast.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relaxation of the symphysis pubis. Relaxin hormone is responsible for loosening the ligaments in the pelvic area, particularly the symphysis pubis, to prepare for childbirth. Choice B, stimulation of milk production, is incorrect as this is primarily regulated by prolactin. Choice C, stimulating the development of the nipple and duct system in the breast, is incorrect as this is mainly influenced by estrogen and progesterone during pregnancy. Therefore, the correct role of relaxin hormone is the relaxation of the symphysis pubis.

2. The patient about to undergo gynecological surgery is put on nil by mouth for ____ before surgery to prevent aspiration.

• A. 2-4 hours
• B. 3-5 hours
• C. 4-6 hours
• D. 5-7 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients undergoing gynecological surgery are typically advised to be nil by mouth for 4-6 hours before the procedure to reduce the risk of aspiration. This duration allows the stomach to empty its contents, decreasing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of stomach contents during surgery. Choices A, B, and D have shorter durations and may not provide sufficient time for adequate gastric emptying, increasing the risk of aspiration.

3. Inevitable abortion occurs when:

• A. The ovum dies in utero and the decidua capsularis remains intact.
• B. The cervix is open, and the products of conception are about to be expelled.
• C. The products of conception are expelled before the 20th week of gestation.
• D. The fetus dies and is expelled in the first trimester.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inevitable abortion occurs when the cervix is open, and the products of conception are about to be expelled. This is a critical point in the process of spontaneous abortion, indicating that expulsion of the products of conception is imminent. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a missed abortion where the ovum dies but the decidua capsularis remains intact. Choice C is incorrect as it describes an incomplete abortion where the products of conception are expelled before the completion of 20 weeks of gestation. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a missed abortion where the fetus dies and is expelled in the first trimester.

4. The placenta is developed from which part of the trophoblast?

• A. Chorionic Frondosum
• B. Anchoring Villi
• C. Chorionic Laeve
• D. Body Stalk

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chorionic Frondosum. The placenta is developed from the chorionic frondosum part of the trophoblast. This structure gives rise to the fetal part of the placenta. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Anchoring Villi are projections from the chorionic plate that attach the placenta to the uterine wall. Chorionic Laeve refers to the smooth chorion that covers the fetal surface of the placenta. The Body Stalk is a structure that connects the early embryo to the trophoblastic pole of the blastocyst.

5. What is the term used to describe the gestational sac surrounded by a blood clot and retained in the tube?

• A. A carneous mole.
• B. A hydatidiform mole.
• C. A vesicular mole.
• D. A chorionic mole.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: a carneous mole. A carneous mole occurs when a gestational sac is surrounded by a blood clot and retained in the tube. Choice B, a hydatidiform mole, is incorrect as it refers to an abnormal pregnancy characterized by the presence of hydropic chorionic villi. Choice C, a vesicular mole, is also incorrect as it is another term for a complete hydatidiform mole. Choice D, a chorionic mole, is not a recognized medical term and is therefore incorrect.

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