HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. Polymenorrhoea is defined as:
- A. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 35 days
- B. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 35 days
- C. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 21 days
- D. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 21 days
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Polymenorrhoea is defined as menstruation that occurs at intervals shorter than 21 days. Choice A is incorrect because it describes menstruation at intervals less than 35 days. Choice B is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 35 days. Choice D is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 21 days.
2. What does Integrated Reproductive Health entail?
- A. Women of childbearing age
- B. Women and under-five children only
- C. Men, women, adolescents, youth, and children
- D. Pregnant women only
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Integrated Reproductive Health involves providing services that cater to a wide range of demographics, including men, women, adolescents, youth, and children. This comprehensive approach ensures that reproductive health needs are addressed across different age groups and genders. Choices A, B, and D are too restrictive and do not encompass the full scope of Integrated Reproductive Health services.
3. At what point is a fetus considered viable?
- A. 26 weeks
- B. 28 weeks
- C. 37 weeks
- D. 12 weeks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A fetus is considered viable after 37 weeks of gestation. At this stage, the fetus has a higher chance of surviving outside the womb with medical support. Choice A (26 weeks), Choice B (28 weeks), and Choice D (12 weeks) are incorrect because a fetus is not typically considered viable at those earlier gestational ages.
4. Which of the following is included in a pelvic examination?
- A. Inspection of internal genitalia
- B. Inspection of the cervix and vaginal wall
- C. Palpation of the vagina and vaginal cervix by digital examination
- D. Rectal examination
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A pelvic examination involves the inspection of the cervix and vaginal wall. This is typically done to assess the health of the reproductive organs and screen for any abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while palpation and digital examination may be part of a pelvic exam, the specific focus on the cervix and vaginal wall is a key component that distinguishes it from other types of examinations.
5. Which one is not a barrier method for birth control?
- A. Diaphragms
- B. Cervical caps
- C. Vaults
- D. Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Intrauterine Devices (IUDs). Barrier methods of birth control physically block sperm from reaching the egg. Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are examples of barrier methods as they create a barrier that prevents sperm from reaching the cervix. In contrast, IUDs work by altering the cervical mucus and uterine lining, making it difficult for sperm to reach the egg, but they do not physically block sperm like barrier methods do.
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