Nursing Elites

1. Polymenorrhoea is defined as:

• A. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 35 days
• B. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 35 days
• C. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 21 days
• D. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 21 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Polymenorrhoea is defined as menstruation that occurs at intervals shorter than 21 days. Choice A is incorrect because it describes menstruation at intervals less than 35 days. Choice B is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 35 days. Choice D is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 21 days.

2. What is amniocentesis used to detect?

• A. Sexually transmitted diseases
• B. Presence of certain genetic disorders
• C. Causes of infertility
• D. Presence of pneumonia germs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amniocentesis is a prenatal test used to detect certain genetic disorders in a developing fetus. It involves collecting a small sample of the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus and analyzing the genetic material present in the cells. This test is not used to detect sexually transmitted diseases, causes of infertility, or the presence of pneumonia germs. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

3. What should be included in the differential diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy?

• A. Inevitable abortion
• B. Dysmenorrhea
• C. Twisted ovarian cyst
• D. Fibroids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the differential diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy, conditions such as twisted ovarian cysts should be considered. Twisted ovarian cysts can present with similar symptoms to ectopic pregnancy, making it important to include them in the differential diagnosis. Choices A, B, and D are not typically part of the differential diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Inevitable abortion refers to an imminent miscarriage, dysmenorrhea is characterized by painful menstruation, and fibroids are benign growths in the uterus, none of which are directly related to ectopic pregnancy.

4. The programs aimed at achieving total reproductive health as a social goal at the national level are called:

• A. Family organization
• B. Family planning
• C. Reproductive care
• D. Reproductive health

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Reproductive health.' Reproductive health programs focus on ensuring overall well-being in relation to reproduction, including access to reproductive services, education, and healthcare. Choice A, 'Family organization,' does not specifically address health aspects related to reproduction. Choice B, 'Family planning,' is more focused on birth control and family size rather than the broader aspects of reproductive health. Choice C, 'Reproductive care,' is limited to the aspect of medical care and does not encompass the comprehensive approach of reproductive health programs.

5. Which of the following is the description of a normal cervix on speculum examination in a non-pregnant woman of reproductive age?

• A. Bright red mucosa surrounding the cervical os, in turn surrounded by smooth, pink mucosa
• B. Pink mucosa with multiple small, fluid-filled protrusions
• C. Pink, glistening, smooth mucosa of the exocervix, with a small round or fish-mouthed cervical os
• D. Smooth, pink mucosa and a small, fleshy protrusion through the cervical os

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct description of a normal cervix on speculum examination in a non-pregnant woman of reproductive age is pink, glistening, smooth mucosa of the exocervix, with a small round or fish-mouthed cervical os. This appearance is characteristic of a healthy cervix. Choice A is incorrect as a bright red mucosa is not normal. Choice B is incorrect as multiple small, fluid-filled protrusions suggest a different condition. Choice D is incorrect as a fleshy protrusion through the cervical os is abnormal.

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