one of the following is not a strategy for family planning
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Reproductive Health Exam

1. Which of the following is NOT a strategy for family planning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Expanded programs of immunization are not considered a strategy for family planning. Immunization programs focus on preventing diseases through vaccines and are distinct from family planning strategies, which aim to help individuals and couples plan their desired family size and spacing of children. Choices A, B, and C are all valid strategies for family planning. Integrating family planning services with other reproductive health programs, expanding access to family planning through non-public delivery systems, and targeting family planning services to priority groups are common approaches to improve the availability and effectiveness of family planning services.

2. Which of the following are layers of endometrium in pregnancy EXCEPT?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During pregnancy, the layers of endometrium include decidua compacta, decidua spongiosum, and decidua basalis. Decidua functionalis is the layer that sheds during menstruation and regenerates each cycle, not a layer of the endometrium during pregnancy. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Decidua compacta is the layer closest to the conceptus, decidua spongiosum is the middle layer, and decidua basalis is the layer adjacent to the myometrium.

3. Amniocentesis, a prenatal diagnostic test used to determine fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities, is based on:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid, which is extracted from the amniotic sac surrounding the developing fetus. This fluid contains cells shed by the fetus, which can be cultured and analyzed to obtain a karyotype, providing information about the fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the chorionic villi from the placenta, not the amniotic fluid; umbilical cord blood sampling is typically used for other purposes like assessing the baby's blood for infections or genetic disorders; and ultrasound is a diagnostic imaging technique that does not involve the analysis of fetal cells for genetic information.

4. Discuss the anatomical/physiological changes in pregnancy under the following: Haematological system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, the haematological system undergoes changes to support the growing fetus. Blood volume and plasma volume increase to accommodate the needs of the developing baby. Red blood cells increase to support the increased oxygen demand. Contrary to the statement, erythropoietin levels actually increase to stimulate red blood cell production. Additionally, leukocyte count increases to help the mother's immune system cope with the changes during pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a decrease in blood components, which is not the case in pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as there are significant changes in the haematological system during pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as platelet count can fluctuate during pregnancy, and there are changes in coagulation factors to prevent excessive bleeding.

5. Causes of metrorrhagia include:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metrorrhagia refers to irregular menstrual bleeding that occurs between periods. Cervical carcinoma, a type of cancer that develops in the cervix, can lead to metrorrhagia. Uterine polyps, which are growths attached to the inner wall of the uterus, can also cause abnormal bleeding. While infections like Chlamydia can cause abnormal vaginal bleeding, they are not common causes of metrorrhagia. Cervical endometriosis, although a possible gynecological condition, is not a typical cause of metrorrhagia. Therefore, the correct answer is cervical carcinoma as it is a known cause of metrorrhagia, making the other options incorrect.

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