HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. One day after abdominal surgery, an obese client complains of pain and heaviness in the right calf. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Observe for unilateral swelling
- B. Administer pain medication
- C. Elevate the leg and apply a warm compress
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to observe for unilateral swelling. Unilateral swelling could indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication that requires immediate assessment. Administering pain medication or applying warm compress may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider should be done after assessing and identifying the issue of unilateral swelling.
2. During the initial visit, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present.
- B. Develop a client needs assessment and review it with the caregiver.
- C. Evaluate the caregiver's ability to care for the client's needs.
- D. Review with the caregiver the interventions provided each day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement during the initial visit is to determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present. This is crucial for ensuring continuous and adequate care, especially for a bed-bound client with multiple sclerosis who relies heavily on the caregiver. While developing a client needs assessment (choice B) and evaluating the caregiver's ability (choice C) are important, understanding the care plan in the caregiver's absence takes precedence. Reviewing daily interventions with the caregiver (choice D) is valuable but not as critical as knowing the care plan during the caregiver's absence.
3. Following an open reduction of the tibia, the nurse notes bleeding on the client's cast. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to see if the area has increased
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- C. Apply a new cast to stop the bleeding
- D. Elevate the limb to reduce blood flow
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After an open reduction of the tibia, bleeding on the cast can be a concern. Outlining the area with ink and monitoring it every 15 minutes is the appropriate action to assess if the bleeding is worsening, indicating the need for further intervention. This action allows for close observation without disturbing the cast. Choice B is incorrect because while notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate action is not always necessary if the bleeding is not severe. Choice C is incorrect because applying a new cast is not the standard intervention for bleeding on a cast. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the limb may not address the underlying cause of bleeding and may not be the most appropriate action at this time.
4. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Confusion and altered mental status
- C. Yellowing of the skin
- D. Increased abdominal girth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are the most critical assessment findings in a client with cirrhosis. These symptoms may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Yellowing of the skin (jaundice) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis and does not necessitate immediate intervention. Peripheral edema and increased abdominal girth are associated with fluid retention in cirrhosis but are not as urgent as addressing altered mental status and confusion.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. INR of 3.0
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access