a 59 year old male client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that just popped up on my neck about a week ago in performing an exa
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. A 59-year-old male client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, nontender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malignancy. A large, non-tender, hardened lymph node is a typical sign of malignancy and warrants further investigation. Choice B (Infection) is incorrect because typically in infections, lymph nodes are tender and may show signs of inflammation. Choice C (Benign cyst) is incorrect as a benign cyst would usually present as a soft, mobile lump. Choice D (Lymphadenitis) is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes due to inflammation.

2. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.

3. A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response when a terminally ill child asks about what will happen to their body when they die is to provide a truthful and straightforward answer. Choice C, 'The heart will stop beating and you will stop breathing,' is the best response because it offers a simple and honest explanation without delving into spiritual or emotional aspects that may be confusing or distressing to the child. Choices A and D deflect the question and do not address the child's inquiry directly. Choice B, 'Why do you want to know about what will happen to your body when you die?' may come across as dismissive or evasive, rather than providing the clear information the child is seeking.

4. A 75-year-old female client is admitted to the orthopedic unit following an open reduction and internal fixation of a hip fracture. On the second postoperative day, the client becomes confused and repeatedly asks the nurse where she is. What information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: History of alcohol use. In this scenario, obtaining the history of alcohol use is crucial as it could indicate withdrawal, which might explain the client's confusion. Alcohol withdrawal can lead to symptoms such as confusion, agitation, and disorientation. While knowing the current medication list (choice B) is important for overall patient care, in this case, alcohol withdrawal is a more likely cause of the confusion. Baseline cognitive status (choice C) is valuable for comparison but may not directly explain the sudden confusion. Family history of dementia (choice D) is less relevant in this acute situation compared to the potential immediate impact of alcohol withdrawal.

5. A client who is taking an oral dose of a tetracycline complains of gastrointestinal upset. What snack should the nurse instruct the client to take with the tetracycline?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Toasted wheat bread and jelly. Dairy products decrease the effect of tetracycline, so the nurse should instruct the client to avoid them. Toast, which contains no dairy products, may help decrease gastrointestinal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C contain dairy products, which should be avoided when taking tetracycline.

Similar Questions

A client with a postoperative wound that eviscerated yesterday has an elevated temperature. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
The healthcare provider should observe most closely for drug toxicity when a client receives a medication that has which characteristic?
A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses