Nursing Elites

1. A 59-year-old male client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, nontender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?

• A. Malignancy
• B. Infection
• C. Benign cyst
• D. Lymphadenitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malignancy. A large, non-tender, hardened lymph node is a typical sign of malignancy and warrants further investigation. Choice B (Infection) is incorrect because typically in infections, lymph nodes are tender and may show signs of inflammation. Choice C (Benign cyst) is incorrect as a benign cyst would usually present as a soft, mobile lump. Choice D (Lymphadenitis) is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes due to inflammation.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Liver function tests. Methotrexate can cause hepatotoxicity, making it essential to closely monitor liver function tests in clients receiving this medication. Monitoring white blood cell count, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specifically required for methotrexate therapy and would not provide relevant information regarding potential adverse effects of the medication.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
• B. Assess the client's respiratory rate.
• C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
• D. Elevate the head of the bed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation is crucial in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen to ensure adequate oxygenation. This assessment helps determine if the current oxygen therapy is effective or if adjustments are necessary. While administering a bronchodilator is important in managing COPD, assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence to address the client's immediate oxygen needs. Assessing the respiratory rate is also important but evaluating oxygen saturation provides more direct information about the client's oxygen status. Elevating the head of the bed can improve ventilation but is not the priority when assessing oxygen saturation in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen.

4. A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. ‘I will reduce my salt intake to help manage my blood pressure.’
• B. ‘I will start exercising regularly to help control my blood pressure.’
• C. ‘I will avoid drinking alcohol to help manage my blood pressure.’
• D. ‘I will limit my caffeine intake to help control my blood pressure.’

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Limiting caffeine intake is a positive lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. The statement indicates that the client understands the importance of reducing caffeine intake. Choices A, B, and C all reflect appropriate lifestyle modifications for managing hypertension, indicating good understanding by the client.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.0
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

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