a 59 year old male client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that just popped up on my neck about a week ago in performing an exa
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HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. A 59-year-old male client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, nontender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malignancy. A large, non-tender, hardened lymph node is a typical sign of malignancy and warrants further investigation. Choice B (Infection) is incorrect because typically in infections, lymph nodes are tender and may show signs of inflammation. Choice C (Benign cyst) is incorrect as a benign cyst would usually present as a soft, mobile lump. Choice D (Lymphadenitis) is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes due to inflammation.

2. A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Limiting caffeine intake is a positive lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. The statement indicates that the client understands the importance of reducing caffeine intake. Choices A, B, and C all reflect appropriate lifestyle modifications for managing hypertension, indicating good understanding by the client.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and can signal respiratory failure in a client with COPD. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation of 90% indicates some oxygenation impairment but may not necessitate immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress. Inspiratory crackles may be present in pneumonia but do not require immediate intervention compared to the increased work of breathing indicated by the use of accessory muscles.

4. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is experiencing chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial priority in managing chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in reducing myocardial damage. While administering aspirin and nitroglycerin are essential interventions in the treatment of myocardial infarction, oxygen therapy takes precedence because it addresses the immediate need for oxygen supply to the heart muscle. Obtaining an ECG is important but can be done after ensuring adequate oxygenation.

5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L should be closely monitored in a client with chronic heart failure as it may indicate hyperkalemia, requiring intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias in patients with heart failure. Serum creatinine (Choice A) is important to monitor for kidney function but is not the priority in this case. Serum sodium (Choice B) and blood glucose (Choice D) levels are not typically the primary focus when assessing a client with heart failure presenting with respiratory symptoms and crackles in the lungs.

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