HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A 59-year-old male client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, nontender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?
- A. Malignancy
- B. Infection
- C. Benign cyst
- D. Lymphadenitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malignancy. A large, non-tender, hardened lymph node is a typical sign of malignancy and warrants further investigation. Choice B (Infection) is incorrect because typically in infections, lymph nodes are tender and may show signs of inflammation. Choice C (Benign cyst) is incorrect as a benign cyst would usually present as a soft, mobile lump. Choice D (Lymphadenitis) is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes due to inflammation.
2. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?
- A. Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves
- B. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure
- C. Restlessness and anxiety
- D. Diaphoresis and dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.
3. A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your mother and father will be here soon. Talk to them about that.'
- B. Why do you want to know about what will happen to your body when you die?'
- C. The heart will stop beating and you will stop breathing.'
- D. Are you concerned about where your spirit will go?'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response when a terminally ill child asks about what will happen to their body when they die is to provide a truthful and straightforward answer. Choice C, 'The heart will stop beating and you will stop breathing,' is the best response because it offers a simple and honest explanation without delving into spiritual or emotional aspects that may be confusing or distressing to the child. Choices A and D deflect the question and do not address the child's inquiry directly. Choice B, 'Why do you want to know about what will happen to your body when you die?' may come across as dismissive or evasive, rather than providing the clear information the child is seeking.
4. A 75-year-old female client is admitted to the orthopedic unit following an open reduction and internal fixation of a hip fracture. On the second postoperative day, the client becomes confused and repeatedly asks the nurse where she is. What information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. History of alcohol use
- B. Current medication list
- C. Baseline cognitive status
- D. Family history of dementia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: History of alcohol use. In this scenario, obtaining the history of alcohol use is crucial as it could indicate withdrawal, which might explain the client's confusion. Alcohol withdrawal can lead to symptoms such as confusion, agitation, and disorientation. While knowing the current medication list (choice B) is important for overall patient care, in this case, alcohol withdrawal is a more likely cause of the confusion. Baseline cognitive status (choice C) is valuable for comparison but may not directly explain the sudden confusion. Family history of dementia (choice D) is less relevant in this acute situation compared to the potential immediate impact of alcohol withdrawal.
5. A client who is taking an oral dose of a tetracycline complains of gastrointestinal upset. What snack should the nurse instruct the client to take with the tetracycline?
- A. Fruit-flavored yogurt
- B. Cheese and crackers
- C. Cold cereal with skim milk
- D. Toasted wheat bread and jelly
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Toasted wheat bread and jelly. Dairy products decrease the effect of tetracycline, so the nurse should instruct the client to avoid them. Toast, which contains no dairy products, may help decrease gastrointestinal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C contain dairy products, which should be avoided when taking tetracycline.
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