a 59 year old male client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that just popped up on my neck about a week ago in performing an exa
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. A 59-year-old male client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, nontender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malignancy. A large, non-tender, hardened lymph node is a typical sign of malignancy and warrants further investigation. Choice B (Infection) is incorrect because typically in infections, lymph nodes are tender and may show signs of inflammation. Choice C (Benign cyst) is incorrect as a benign cyst would usually present as a soft, mobile lump. Choice D (Lymphadenitis) is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes due to inflammation.

2. A 3-year-old boy with a congenital heart defect is brought to the clinic by his mother. During the assessment, the mother asks the nurse why her child is at the 5th percentile for growth. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heart disease can affect growth, leading to smaller size in children.

3. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl in a client who is unresponsive due to hyperglycemia. This intervention is crucial to rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels and address the emergency situation. Administering insulin (Choice B) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's condition. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice D) are important assessments but are secondary to the immediate need to address the high blood glucose levels causing the client's unresponsiveness.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client with atrial fibrillation to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy with warfarin. Monitoring the INR helps to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent complications such as thrombosis or bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While serum glucose levels are important in assessing metabolic status, and white blood cell count and prothrombin time are important indicators for other conditions, they are not the primary focus when a client with atrial fibrillation presents with confusion.

5. The nurse enters a client's room and observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) making an occupied bed. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the side rails in an up position first. This action is essential to prevent the client from falling while the bed is being made. Assisting the UAP in turning the client (Choice B) is not the immediate priority. Providing instructions on bed-making techniques (Choice C) can wait until the safety of the client is ensured. Asking the client if they are comfortable (Choice D) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety by raising the side rails.

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