Nursing Elites

1. A 59-year-old male client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, nontender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?

• A. Malignancy
• B. Infection
• C. Benign cyst
• D. Lymphadenitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malignancy. A large, non-tender, hardened lymph node is a typical sign of malignancy and warrants further investigation. Choice B (Infection) is incorrect because typically in infections, lymph nodes are tender and may show signs of inflammation. Choice C (Benign cyst) is incorrect as a benign cyst would usually present as a soft, mobile lump. Choice D (Lymphadenitis) is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes due to inflammation.

2. During the initial newborn assessment, the nurse finds that a newborn's heart rate is irregular. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the pediatrician immediately.
• B. Teach the parents about congenital heart defects.
• C. Document the finding in the infant's record.
• D. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula at 3 L/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention when a nurse finds an irregular heart rate in a newborn is to document the finding in the infant's record. An irregular heart rate is a common occurrence in newborns and does not necessarily require immediate medical intervention. Notifying the pediatrician immediately is unnecessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Teaching the parents about congenital heart defects is not the priority in this situation. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula at 3 L/min is not indicated for an irregular heart rate without further assessment or medical indication.

3. A client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation via a triple-lumen suprapubic catheter that was placed during a prostatectomy. Which report by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Leakage around the catheter insertion site.
• B. Pink-tinged urine in the drainage bag.
• C. Client reports discomfort at the catheter site.
• D. Decreased urine output in the last hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Leakage around the catheter insertion site may indicate a problem with the catheter placement or function, requiring immediate intervention. Pink-tinged urine in the drainage bag is expected due to the continuous bladder irrigation. Discomfort at the catheter site is common after the procedure. Decreased urine output in the last hour may be due to the continuous bladder irrigation and doesn't require immediate intervention.

4. When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion, which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with new-onset confusion, an ECG is crucial to assess for cardiac ischemia, which could be a potential cause of the confusion. A chest X-ray (Choice B) is not typically the first-line diagnostic test for evaluating confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are more useful in assessing oxygenation and acid-base balance rather than the cause of confusion in this scenario. While an echocardiogram (Choice D) provides valuable information about cardiac structure and function, it is usually not the initial diagnostic test needed in the evaluation of acute confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation.

5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Before a CT scan with contrast, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. This is crucial in patients with CKD because contrast agents can potentially worsen kidney function and lead to contrast-induced nephropathy. Monitoring serum creatinine helps assess kidney function and determine the risk of complications. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is another marker of kidney function, but serum creatinine is a more specific indicator. Serum potassium levels are important in assessing electrolyte balance but are not directly related to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. Serum glucose levels are not typically a primary concern before a CT scan with contrast in a patient with CKD.

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