Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a 38-week gestation newborn infant immediately following a vaginal birth. Which assessment finding best indicates that the infant is transitioning well to extrauterine life?

• A. Positive Babinski reflex.
• B. Flexion of all four extremities.
• C. Heart rate of 220 beats/min.
• D. Cries vigorously when stimulated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A vigorous cry upon stimulation indicates that the newborn has good respiratory effort and is transitioning well to life outside the womb. It shows that the infant's airways are clear, and they are able to establish effective breathing, a crucial aspect of transitioning successfully to extrauterine life. Choices A, B, and C are not the best indicators of successful transition to extrauterine life. The Babinski reflex and flexion of extremities are normal neonatal reflexes and do not specifically indicate successful transition. A heart rate of 220 beats/min is abnormally high for a newborn and could indicate distress rather than a smooth transition.

2. A client at 18-weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) should be evaluated.
• B. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.
• C. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
• D. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in a pregnant client can indicate potential congenital anomalies in the fetus. A follow-up sonogram is necessary to provide definitive results and further evaluate the fetus for any possible abnormalities. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to explain to the client that scheduling a sonogram is the next appropriate step to assess the fetal well-being and address any concerns regarding the elevated AFP level. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a repeat AFP test alone, discussing surgical correction of defects, or assuming the results are false without further evaluation are not appropriate responses when dealing with a potentially serious issue like elevated AFP levels in pregnancy.

3. After a client delivered vaginally 2 days ago, what information should you share with her if she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control?

• A. The diaphragm is the most effective form of contraception.
• B. The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth.
• C. Vaseline lubricant should be used when inserting the diaphragm.
• D. The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After childbirth, the diaphragm must be refitted to ensure a proper fit and effectiveness. Changes in the body post-delivery can affect the fit of the diaphragm, making it necessary to get refitted. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm can be effective, it is not the most effective form of contraception. Choice C is incorrect because oil-based lubricants like Vaseline can damage latex diaphragms. Choice D is incorrect because the diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours.

4. The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old child with Reye’s syndrome. Which goal of treatment most clearly relates to caring for this child?

• A. Reduce cerebral edema and lower intracranial pressure
• B. Avert hypotension and septic shock
• C. Prevent cardiac arrhythmias and heart failure
• D. Promote kidney perfusion and normal blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Reducing cerebral edema and lowering intracranial pressure is the primary goal of treatment for Reye’s syndrome.

5. During a woman's first prenatal visit, the nurse reviews her health care record, noting a history of chickenpox as a child and syphilis as a teenager. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Obtain blood and urine for prenatal screens.
• B. Schedule prenatal visits to occur monthly.
• C. Explain common complications of pregnancy.
• D. Obtain baseline blood pressure and weight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obtaining blood and urine for prenatal screens is crucial in identifying any potential infections or conditions that may require monitoring throughout the pregnancy. Screening for infections such as syphilis is essential to ensure appropriate management and prevent adverse outcomes. This action helps in early detection and timely intervention, promoting the health and well-being of both the mother and the developing fetus. The other options, while important during prenatal care, are not as critical as obtaining prenatal screens to assess for any existing infections that could impact the pregnancy.

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