HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a 38-week gestation newborn infant immediately following a vaginal birth. Which assessment finding best indicates that the infant is transitioning well to extrauterine life?
- A. Positive Babinski reflex.
- B. Flexion of all four extremities.
- C. Heart rate of 220 beats/min.
- D. Cries vigorously when stimulated.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A vigorous cry upon stimulation indicates that the newborn has good respiratory effort and is transitioning well to life outside the womb. It shows that the infant's airways are clear, and they are able to establish effective breathing, a crucial aspect of transitioning successfully to extrauterine life. Choices A, B, and C are not the best indicators of successful transition to extrauterine life. The Babinski reflex and flexion of extremities are normal neonatal reflexes and do not specifically indicate successful transition. A heart rate of 220 beats/min is abnormally high for a newborn and could indicate distress rather than a smooth transition.
2. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and needs health insurance. To which agency should the employee health nurse refer her?
- A. Medicaid
- B. Medicare
- C. COBRA
- D. Private insurance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medicare. Medicare is the federal health insurance program for individuals aged 65 and older, so it is the most suitable option for the 66-year-old woman retiring. Medicaid (choice A) is a state and federally funded program for low-income individuals and families, not specifically for retirees. COBRA (choice C) allows employees to continue their employer-sponsored health insurance for a limited time after leaving employment. Private insurance (choice D) refers to health insurance plans purchased directly from private insurance companies.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Polyuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased urine output.' Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and decreased urine output. Therefore, the nurse should expect the client to have decreased urine output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not typically associated with SIADH as it usually leads to dilutional hyponatremia. Hypotension (Choice B) is not a common clinical manifestation of SIADH. Polyuria (Choice D) is the opposite of what is expected in a client with SIADH, who typically presents with decreased urine output.
4. The healthcare provider caring for a patient who will receive penicillin to treat an infection asks the patient about previous drug reactions. The patient reports having had a rash when taking amoxicillin (Amoxil). The healthcare provider will contact the provider to
- A. discuss giving a smaller dose of penicillin.
- B. discuss using erythromycin (E-mycin) instead of penicillin.
- C. request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
- D. suggest that the patient receive cefuroxime (Ceftin).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient reports a previous rash with amoxicillin, which is a type of penicillin, there is a concern for a penicillin allergy. In such cases, using an alternative antibiotic like erythromycin, which is not a penicillin, is the appropriate approach to avoid potential cross-reactivity and allergic reactions. Giving smaller doses of penicillin does not address the underlying allergy issue and can still lead to severe hypersensitivity reactions. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is used to manage allergic reactions but should not be the first choice in changing the antibiotic. While some patients allergic to penicillins may also be allergic to cephalosporins like cefuroxime, it is not the best immediate alternative in this scenario.
5. The practical nurse is reinforcing education with the parents of a child prescribed iron supplements for iron-deficiency anemia. Which statement by the parents indicates they need further instruction?
- A. We will give the iron supplement with milk to reduce stomach upset.
- B. We should give the iron supplement with orange juice to improve absorption.
- C. The supplement may cause the stools to appear dark or black.
- D. We should store the iron supplements out of reach of children.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Iron supplements should not be given with milk as calcium can interfere with iron absorption. Instead, it is recommended to give it with a source of vitamin C, such as orange juice, to enhance iron absorption. Giving iron supplements with milk may decrease the absorption of iron and should be avoided. Choice B is the correct method to improve iron absorption. Choice C is correct as iron supplements can cause dark or black stools due to unabsorbed iron. Choice D is also correct as iron supplements should always be stored out of reach of children to prevent accidental ingestion.