Nursing Elites

1. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with fever and pain secondary to a sickle cell crisis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a culture of any sputum or wound drainage
• B. Initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr
• C. Administer a loading dose of penicillin IM
• D. Administer the initial dose of folic acid PO

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a child with a sickle cell crisis, the priority intervention is to initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr to manage dehydration and help alleviate pain. This intervention helps improve hydration status and supports the circulation of sickled red blood cells, reducing the risk of vaso-occlusive episodes and associated pain. Obtaining a culture of any sputum or wound drainage (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering a loading dose of penicillin IM (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention. Administering the initial dose of folic acid PO (Choice D) is beneficial but does not address the immediate need for hydration in a sickle cell crisis.

2. A pregnant client receives Rho(D) immune globulin after an amniocentesis. The day following, she reports a temperature of 99.8°F (37.67°C). Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Schedule a visit with the healthcare provider today.
• B. Verify the compatibility of the administered Rho(D) immune globulin.
• C. Encourage the client to increase her intake of oral fluids.
• D. Instruct the client to maintain bedrest for 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A mild increase in temperature post-amniocentesis is common, and encouraging the client to increase oral fluid intake is the appropriate action. Increasing fluid intake can help reduce mild fever, promote recovery, and prevent dehydration. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the importance of staying hydrated to support her overall well-being during this time.

3. Upon arrival in the nursery, a newborn infant is breathing satisfactorily but appears dusky. What action should the LPN/LVN take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• B. Suction the infant's nares, then the oral cavity.
• C. Check the infant's oxygen saturation rate.
• D. Position the infant on the right side.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action in this scenario is to check the infant's oxygen saturation rate. This will provide crucial information on the infant's oxygen levels and the need for immediate oxygen therapy. Assessing oxygen saturation is essential in determining the severity of hypoxia and guiding further interventions to ensure adequate oxygenation. Option A is not the priority as immediate intervention related to oxygenation is needed before notifying the healthcare provider. Suctioning (Option B) may be necessary but should come after assessing oxygen saturation. Positioning the infant (Option D) does not address the immediate need to evaluate oxygen levels.

4. The nurse instructs a laboring client to use accelerated-blow breathing. The client begins to complain of tingling fingers and dizziness. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer oxygen by face mask.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms.
• C. Have the client breathe into her cupped hands.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure and fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tingling fingers and dizziness are symptoms of hyperventilation, which can occur with accelerated-blow breathing. Instructing the client to breathe into her cupped hands can help rebreathe exhaled carbon dioxide, which can alleviate the symptoms by restoring the proper balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood. This intervention can be effective in managing the client's hyperventilation without the need for additional medical interventions at this point.

5. The nurse is caring for a 2-day old neonate who has not passed meconium and has a swollen abdomen. The healthcare provider reviews the flat plate X-ray of the abdomen and makes a tentative diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease. Which pathophysiological process is consistent with this neonate's clinical picture?

• A. The congenital absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells to large intestine produces no peristalsis.
• B. Pyloric obstruction causes reflux and projectile hematemesis.
• C. Partial imperforated anal opening limits passage of stools.
• D. Peristalsis moving against the intestinal obstruction causing hyperactivity of the bowel.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease is caused by the absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the large intestine, leading to a lack of peristalsis and obstruction.

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