a community health nurse visits a family in which a 16 year old unmarried daughter is pregnant with her first child and is at 32 weeks gestation the c
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet

1. A community health nurse visits a family in which a 16-year-old unmarried daughter is pregnant with her first child and is at 32-weeks gestation. The client tells the nurse that she has been having intermittent back pain since the night before. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge. Changes in vaginal discharge can indicate preterm labor, making it crucial to assess promptly. This information will help determine if the client needs immediate medical attention and appropriate interventions to prevent preterm birth and ensure the well-being of the mother and the baby. Option A is not the priority as back pain alone does not warrant immediate ambulance transport. Option B is less relevant in this context as the focus should be on immediate concerns related to pregnancy. Option C is not the priority as addressing back pain should come after ruling out urgent pregnancy-related issues.

2. After administering the varicella vaccine to a 5-year-old child, which instruction should the nurse provide the child’s parent?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After receiving the varicella vaccine, applying a cool pack to the injection site can help reduce discomfort. This intervention is a simple and effective way to manage local reactions at the site of the vaccination, providing comfort to the child and potentially reducing swelling or pain. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because chewable children’s aspirin is not typically recommended after vaccination, keeping the child home is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider, and monitoring fever alone is not the primary instruction post-varicella vaccination.

3. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache 24 hours following the delivery of a normal newborn. Prior to the anesthesiologist's arrival on the unit, which action should the nurse perform?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a postpartum client exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache, applying an abdominal binder is a priority action. The abdominal binder can help reduce the severity of a spinal headache by increasing intra-abdominal pressure, which may relieve pressure on the dural sac and alleviate symptoms. This intervention can be performed promptly by the nurse to provide immediate relief while waiting for further evaluation and management by the anesthesiologist. Cleansing the spinal injection site (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation as the headache is likely due to a dural puncture during epidural anesthesia rather than infection. Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter (Choice C) and placing procedure equipment at the bedside (Choice D) are not the appropriate actions to address a spinal headache and should not take precedence over applying an abdominal binder.

4. After a full-term vaginal delivery, a postpartum client's white blood cell count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In postpartum clients, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 can be within normal limits due to physiological changes that occur after childbirth. Checking the differential count would provide a more detailed analysis of the specific types of white blood cells present, helping to differentiate between normal postpartum changes and potential infection. This action allows the nurse to gather more information before escalating the situation to the healthcare provider or initiating other assessments. Assessing vital signs and the perineal area are important aspects of postpartum care but may not be the priority in this scenario where the white blood cell count can be influenced by normal physiological changes.

5. A breastfeeding infant, screened for congenital hypothyroidism, is found to have low levels of thyroxine (T4) and high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). What is the best explanation for this finding?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: High TSH and low T4 levels indicate that the thyroid gland is not producing enough hormones, which is a sign of congenital hypothyroidism. In this case, the high TSH is a compensatory response by the body to stimulate the thyroid to produce more T4. Choice A is incorrect because TSH does not directly affect T4 levels; rather, it is the other way around where low T4 levels lead to high TSH levels. Choice B is incorrect because high thyroxine levels are not expected in congenital hypothyroidism. Choice C is incorrect as the thyroid gland should be producing normal levels of thyroxine shortly after birth, making this explanation unlikely in the context of congenital hypothyroidism.

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