HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. Oligomenorrhea is defined as a cycle longer than:
- A. 28 days
- B. 30 days
- C. 35 days
- D. 40 days
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Oligomenorrhea is defined as a menstrual cycle longer than 35 days. A cycle of 28 days (Choice A) is within the normal range, and not considered oligomenorrhea. Similarly, 30 days (Choice B) and 40 days (Choice D) are also within the normal range. The correct definition of oligomenorrhea specifically refers to cycles longer than 35 days, making Choice C the correct answer.
2. Incomplete abortion is characterized by:
- A. Heavy bleeding.
- B. Open os.
- C. Severe cramping.
- D. Light bleeding.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Incomplete abortion is characterized by an open os, which means that the cervix is dilated, allowing for passage of tissue. This condition typically presents with heavy bleeding as parts of the products of conception are expelled. Severe cramping may also be present due to uterine contractions. Therefore, the correct characteristic of incomplete abortion is an open os (Choice B). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as heavy bleeding and severe cramping are symptoms associated with incomplete abortion, but they do not specifically define it, and light bleeding is not characteristic of incomplete abortion.
3. Which contraceptive option suppresses sperm motility and inhibits the implantation of the blastocyst?
- A. Copper-T
- B. Diaphragm
- C. Contraceptive pills
- D. Condom
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Copper-T. Copper-T is an intrauterine device that releases copper ions, which suppress sperm motility and inhibit the implantation of the blastocyst. This method mainly works by preventing fertilization and, if fertilization occurs, by making the endometrium less receptive to implantation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The diaphragm is a barrier method that prevents sperm from reaching the cervix; contraceptive pills mainly work by suppressing ovulation and altering cervical mucus to prevent sperm from reaching the egg; condoms are barrier methods that prevent sperm from entering the vagina.
4. What does Informed Consent mean?
- A. A patient has the right to know what a procedure involves before it is performed.
- B. Forcing all patients scheduled for surgery to sign a consent form.
- C. Telling the patient to sign the consent form without explanation.
- D. Allowing patients to undergo procedures without their consent.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Informed Consent means that a patient has the right to be informed about what a procedure involves before it is performed. Choice B is incorrect because consent should not be forced, and patients should have the opportunity to understand what they are agreeing to. Choice C is incorrect as it goes against the essence of informed consent, which requires explanation. Choice D is incorrect as it contradicts the fundamental principle of requiring patient consent before procedures.
5. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971, how many weeks of pregnancy is Medical Termination of Pregnancy considered safe up to?
- A. 8 Weeks
- B. 12 Weeks
- C. 18 Weeks
- D. 6 Weeks
Correct answer: B
Rationale: According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971, Medical Termination of Pregnancy is considered safe up to 12 weeks of pregnancy. This timeframe is crucial to ensure the safety and well-being of the individual undergoing the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the legal provisions outlined in the MTP Act, 1971.
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