HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. Culdoscopy is a procedure performed to examine the rectouterine pouch and pelvic viscera through:
- A. The posterior vaginal wall
- B. The anterior vaginal wall
- C. The abdominal wall
- D. The rectal wall
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Culdoscopy is a procedure that involves examining the rectouterine pouch and pelvic viscera through the posterior vaginal wall. This approach allows direct visualization and access to the pelvic area. The other choices are incorrect because culdoscopy specifically involves entering through the posterior vaginal wall to reach the specified anatomical structures. The anterior vaginal wall, abdominal wall, and rectal wall are not the access points used in culdoscopy.
2. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Weight loss
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In Cushing's syndrome, hyperglycemia is a common finding due to increased cortisol levels leading to insulin resistance. This can have serious implications such as diabetes mellitus and should be promptly reported for appropriate management. Hypotension (choice A) is more commonly associated with Addison's disease, not Cushing's syndrome. Weight gain rather than weight loss (choice C) is typically observed in clients with Cushing's syndrome. While hypokalemia (choice D) can occur in Cushing's syndrome due to excess cortisol affecting potassium levels, it is not as critical as hyperglycemia and may not be the priority for immediate reporting.
3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- B. Nifedipine (Procardia)
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
- D. Clonidine (Catapres)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario of severe hypertension (180/110 mm Hg), the nurse should prepare to administer Clonidine (Catapres), which is an antihypertensive medication commonly used to rapidly lower blood pressure in acute situations. Atenolol and Nifedipine are also antihypertensive medications, but Clonidine is more appropriate for immediate blood pressure reduction in this critical situation. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic often used for long-term management of hypertension, not for rapid lowering of severely elevated blood pressure.
4. A teenager who has lost 20 pounds in the last three months is admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia. The client reports irregular menses and hair loss. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s plan of care?
- A. Initiate caloric and nutritional therapy.
- B. Implement behavioral modification therapy.
- C. Evaluate the client for low self-esteem.
- D. Record daily weights and graph trends.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client presents with evidence of anorexia nervosa resulting from self-starvation, which is a life-threatening condition. Providing nutrition and calories is the priority intervention so that the risk of electrolyte imbalance and severe dehydration can be reduced. Behavioral modification therapy (Choice B) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the priority in this acute situation. Evaluating for low self-esteem (Choice C) may be part of the nursing assessment but does not address the immediate life-threatening issues. Recording daily weights and graphing trends (Choice D) is important for monitoring progress but does not address the critical need for nutritional therapy in this case.
5. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
- B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
- C. Begin external chest compressions.
- D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.