Nursing Elites

1. The patient expects that a type 1 diabetic may receive ____ of their morning dose of insulin preoperatively:

• A. 10-20%.
• B. 25-40%.
• C. 50-60%.
• D. 85-90%.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is common practice to administer 25-40% of the morning dose of insulin preoperatively to prevent hypoglycemia during surgery. Giving a lower percentage (A) may not provide sufficient glycemic control, while higher percentages (C, D) can increase the risk of hypoglycemia during the surgical procedure.

2. A client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is being treated in the ER. Which finding would a nurse expect to note as confirming this diagnosis?

• A. Elevated blood glucose level and a low plasma bicarbonate
• B. Decreased urine output
• C. Increased respirations and an increase in pH
• D. Comatose state

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated blood glucose level and a low plasma bicarbonate. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis, reflected by a low plasma bicarbonate. Elevated blood glucose levels are a hallmark of DKA due to the body's inability to use glucose properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased urine output is not a specific finding associated with DKA. Increased respirations and an increase in pH are not typical in DKA; in fact, respiratory compensation for the metabolic acidosis in DKA leads to Kussmaul breathing (deep, rapid breathing). A comatose state may occur in severe cases of DKA but is not a confirming finding for the diagnosis.

3. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with myxedema coma. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer intravenous fluids
• B. Provide a warming blanket
• C. Administer levothyroxine intravenously
• D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In myxedema coma, the priority intervention is to administer levothyroxine intravenously. Myxedema coma is a severe form of hypothyroidism, and intravenous levothyroxine is crucial to rapidly replace deficient thyroid hormones. Administering intravenous fluids (choice A) may be necessary, but levothyroxine takes precedence. Providing a warming blanket (choice B) can help maintain the client's body temperature, but it does not address the underlying thyroid hormone deficiency. Placing the client in Trendelenburg position (choice D) is not indicated and can potentially worsen the client's condition.

5. During the physical examination, Nurse Noah expects to assess which sign in a female client with a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl?

• A. Trousseau's sign
• B. Homans' sign
• C. Hegar's sign
• D. Goodell's sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Trousseau's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is inflated above systolic pressure and maintained for a few minutes. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular irritability associated with low serum calcium levels. Homans' sign is used to assess for deep vein thrombosis and involves calf pain upon dorsiflexion of the foot. Hegar's sign is a softening of the lower uterine segment seen in pregnancy, while Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix also seen in pregnancy. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct assessment related to hypocalcemia would be Trousseau's sign.

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