HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) is prescribed for a client with pain. Which of the following would the nurse monitor for as a side effect of this medication?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) is an opioid analgesic that can cause various side effects. Common side effects include respiratory depression, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, drowsiness, constipation, and urinary retention. Diarrhea is not a common side effect of Meperidine hydrochloride. Bradycardia and hypertension are not typically associated with this medication. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for urinary retention as a potential side effect of Meperidine hydrochloride.
2. Why is prostaglandin E1 prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries?
- A. Prevents hypercyanotic (blue or tet) spells
- B. Maintains an adequate hormone level
- C. Maintains the position of the great arteries
- D. Provides adequate oxygen saturation and maintains cardiac output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 is prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries to increase blood mixing, which helps maintain adequate oxygen saturation and cardiac output. This medication does not prevent hypercyanotic spells, maintain hormone levels, or influence the position of the great arteries.
3. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:
- A. Should always be taken with food or antacids
- B. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
- C. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
- D. May not be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions, including sweat, tears, urine, and feces. It can also permanently stain soft contact lenses. It is essential to take rifampin exactly as directed and not discontinue it without consulting the healthcare provider.
4. A client is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing intervention?
- A. Monitor for renal failure.
- B. Monitor psychosocial status.
- C. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
- D. Have heparin sodium available.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client receiving tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase) for an acute myocardial infarction is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Alteplase is a thrombolytic medication that can lead to hemorrhage as a complication. Therefore, closely monitoring the client for any signs of bleeding is essential to promptly address and manage this potential adverse effect.
5. A healthcare provider notes that a client is receiving lamivudine (Epivir). The healthcare provider determines that this medication has been prescribed to treat which of the following?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Pharyngitis
- C. Tonic-clonic seizures
- D. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lamivudine, known by the brand name Epivir, is an antiretroviral medication used in the treatment of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. This medication helps to inhibit the replication of HIV and improve the immune system function in individuals with HIV. Therefore, the correct answer is option D, Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.
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