Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin). Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hearing loss
• C. Headache
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gentamicin (Garamycin) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss. Hearing loss is a serious adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications or adjust the treatment regimen. Nausea, headache, and diarrhea are common side effects of gentamicin but are not as severe or urgent as hearing loss in this context.

2. Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client's history?

• A. Neuralgia
• B. Insomnia
• C. Use of nitroglycerin
• D. Use of multivitamins

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide and is contraindicated with the concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Using nitroglycerin together with Viagra can lead to severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse, making it unsafe to combine both medications.

3. A client is being taught about the use of enoxaparin (Lovenox) for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Inject the medication subcutaneously.
• B. Avoid massaging the injection site after administration.
• C. Administer the medication at the same time each day.
• D. Do not expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is administered subcutaneously at the same time each day to maintain consistent blood levels. Injecting the medication into the muscle is incorrect, as it should be given subcutaneously. Massaging the injection site should be avoided to prevent bruising. The air bubble in the prefilled syringe should not be expelled, as it ensures the full dose is administered.

4. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

5. Before administering Methylergonovine (Methergine) to a client with postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony, the nurse checks which of the following as the important client parameter?

• A. Temperature
• B. Lochial flow
• C. Urine output
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Methylergonovine (Methergine) acts by stimulating uterine contractions and causing vasoconstriction. As vasoconstriction can potentially impact blood pressure, it is crucial to check the client's blood pressure before administering Methylergonovine to monitor for any hypertensive effects.

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