Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin). Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hearing loss
• C. Headache
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gentamicin (Garamycin) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss. Hearing loss is a serious adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications or adjust the treatment regimen. Nausea, headache, and diarrhea are common side effects of gentamicin but are not as severe or urgent as hearing loss in this context.

2. A client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) and is being discharged. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Consume potassium-rich foods.
• B. Take the medication in the morning.
• C. Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.
• D. Maintain an adequate fluid intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to change positions slowly to prevent dizziness. Furosemide (Lasix) is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness. Consuming potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent hypokalemia when taking furosemide. Taking the medication in the morning helps reduce the need for frequent urination at night. Encouraging the client to maintain an adequate fluid intake is crucial to prevent dehydration while on this medication.

3. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Constipation
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.

4. A client who had a kidney transplant is receiving therapy with cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

• A. I need to obtain a yearly influenza vaccine.
• B. I need to have dental checkups every 3 months.
• C. I need to self-monitor my blood pressure at home.
• D. I need to call the health care provider (HCP) if my urine volume decreases or my urine becomes cloudy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant that can reduce the effectiveness of vaccines. Clients should avoid vaccinations without consulting their health care provider to prevent potential complications or reduced efficacy of the vaccines.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Use the medication as a rescue inhaler.
• B. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication with a full glass of water.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tiotropium (Spiriva) is not a rescue inhaler but a maintenance medication for COPD. The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan is to advise the client to rinse their mouth after using the inhaler. This practice helps prevent dry mouth and throat irritation, common side effects of tiotropium. There are no specific recommendations to take tiotropium on an empty stomach or with a full glass of water.

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