a client is receiving gentamicin garamycin intravenously which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to notify the health care provider im
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam

1. A client is receiving intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin). Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gentamicin (Garamycin) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss. Hearing loss is a serious adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications or adjust the treatment regimen. Nausea, headache, and diarrhea are common side effects of gentamicin but are not as severe or urgent as hearing loss in this context.

2. A client is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) for hyperlipidemia. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan is to advise the client to avoid consuming grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can increase the risk of atorvastatin (Lipitor) toxicity by inhibiting its metabolism. Atorvastatin is typically taken in the evening because cholesterol synthesis occurs at night. Increasing dairy intake is not specifically recommended for atorvastatin use, and the medication can be taken with or without food.

3. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

4. The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ondansetron, also known as Zofran, is an antiemetic medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. In the postoperative setting, it is commonly administered to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, which are frequent occurrences after surgery. Ondansetron works by blocking serotonin, a natural substance in the body that can trigger nausea and vomiting. It is also utilized to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the correct condition for which ondansetron should be administered to the postoperative client is nausea and vomiting.

5. When monitoring a client for acute toxicity associated with bethanechol chloride (Urecholine), what sign should the nurse check for to indicate toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Toxicity from bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) can lead to excessive muscarinic stimulation, resulting in manifestations like salivation, sweating, involuntary urination and defecation, bradycardia, and severe hypotension. When facing toxicity, treatment involves supportive measures and administering atropine sulfate subcutaneously or intravenously.

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