Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin). Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hearing loss
• C. Headache
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gentamicin (Garamycin) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss. Hearing loss is a serious adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications or adjust the treatment regimen. Nausea, headache, and diarrhea are common side effects of gentamicin but are not as severe or urgent as hearing loss in this context.

2. Mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept) is prescribed for a client as prophylaxis for organ rejection following an allogeneic renal transplant. Which of the following instructions does the nurse reinforce regarding administration of this medication?

• A. Administer on an empty stomach.
• B. Take the medication with a calcium-type antacid.
• C. Open the capsule and mix with food for administration.
• D. Contact the health care provider (HCP) if a sore throat occurs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for administering mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept) is to contact the healthcare provider (HCP) if unusual bleeding or bruising, sore throat, or other adverse effects occur. It is essential not to open or crush the capsules to maintain the medication's efficacy.

3. When monitoring a client for acute toxicity associated with bethanechol chloride (Urecholine), what sign should the nurse check for to indicate toxicity?

• A. Dry skin
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Signs of dehydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Toxicity from bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) can lead to excessive muscarinic stimulation, resulting in manifestations like salivation, sweating, involuntary urination and defecation, bradycardia, and severe hypotension. When facing toxicity, treatment involves supportive measures and administering atropine sulfate subcutaneously or intravenously.

4. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

5. Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) is prescribed for a client for symptomatic relief of pain resulting from a lower urinary tract infection. The nurse reinforces to the client:

• A. To take the medication after meals
• B. To take the medication before meals
• C. To discontinue the medication if a headache occurs
• D. That a reddish-orange discoloration of the urine may occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client that a reddish-orange discoloration of urine may occur. The nurse should also educate the client that this discoloration can stain fabric. It is recommended to take the medication after meals to reduce the possibility of gastrointestinal upset. While a headache is an occasional side effect of the medication, it does not warrant discontinuation of the medication.

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