HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI Quizlet
1. Insulin glargine (Lantus) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse tells the client that it is best to take the insulin:
- A. 1 hour after each meal
- B. Once daily, at the same time each day
- C. 15 minutes before breakfast, lunch, and dinner
- D. Before each meal, based on the blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin with a duration of action of approximately 24 hours, making it suitable for once-daily dosing at the same time each day. This regimen helps maintain consistent blood glucose levels and simplifies the client's treatment routine. Taking insulin glargine once daily provides basal insulin coverage throughout the day, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia compared to short-acting insulins that are taken before each meal.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Use the medication as a rescue inhaler.
- B. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tiotropium (Spiriva) is not a rescue inhaler but a maintenance medication for COPD. The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan is to advise the client to rinse their mouth after using the inhaler. This practice helps prevent dry mouth and throat irritation, common side effects of tiotropium. There are no specific recommendations to take tiotropium on an empty stomach or with a full glass of water.
3. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
- B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
- C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
- D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.
4. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?
- A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
- B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
- C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
- D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.
5. A client is receiving sulfisoxazole. Which of the following should be included in the list of instructions?
- A. Restrict fluid intake.
- B. Maintain a high fluid intake.
- C. If the urine turns dark brown, call the healthcare provider (HCP) immediately.
- D. Decrease the dosage when symptoms are improving to prevent an allergic response.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is taking sulfisoxazole, it is important to maintain a high fluid intake. Each dose of sulfisoxazole should be taken with a full glass of water, as the medication is more soluble in alkaline urine. Restricting fluid intake is not recommended as it can lead to inadequate hydration. Dark brown urine may be a side effect of some forms of sulfisoxazole but does not necessarily warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. Decreasing the dosage when symptoms improve is not advised as it may lead to treatment failure or the development of resistance.
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