lactational amenorrhoea method lam is best for
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Reproductive Health Exam

1. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is best for:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clients with a baby less than 6 months postpartum. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is a highly effective temporary family planning method that is recommended for women who have recently given birth and are breastfeeding. LAM works best when the baby is less than 6 months old, the mother is exclusively breastfeeding, and her menstrual periods have not resumed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because LAM is specifically designed for postpartum women with infants less than 6 months old, focusing on the lactational infertility that occurs during exclusive breastfeeding.

2. Which of the following structures is responsible for the production of sperm?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The testes are the male reproductive organs responsible for the production of sperm through a process called spermatogenesis. The epididymis is a structure where sperm mature and are stored temporarily. Seminal vesicles produce a significant portion of the fluid that ultimately becomes semen, but they do not produce sperm. The prostate gland contributes additional fluid to semen but does not produce sperm. Therefore, the correct answer is the testes.

3. What does Integrated Reproductive Health entail?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Integrated Reproductive Health involves providing services that cater to a wide range of demographics, including men, women, adolescents, youth, and children. This comprehensive approach ensures that reproductive health needs are addressed across different age groups and genders. Choices A, B, and D are too restrictive and do not encompass the full scope of Integrated Reproductive Health services.

4. How do contraceptive oral pills help in birth control?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Contraceptive oral pills primarily work by preventing ovulation, which means Choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect because oral contraceptive pills do not kill ova or sperms. Choice D is incorrect because only preventing ovulation is the primary mechanism of action for oral contraceptive pills.

5. Which statement accurately describes the female pelvis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the Platypelloid pelvis indeed has an oval inlet. Gynaecoid pelvis, not mentioned in the choices, has a round inlet. Anthropoid pelvis has a long, narrow oval inlet, which makes choice C incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as the Android pelvis is actually heart-shaped with a narrowed inlet.

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