Nursing Elites

1. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is best for:

• A. Clients who do not wish to have any more children
• B. Clients with a baby less than 6 months postpartum
• C. Clients who want to wait before having a first or another child
• D. Clients with several sexual partners

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clients with a baby less than 6 months postpartum. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is a highly effective temporary family planning method that is recommended for women who have recently given birth and are breastfeeding. LAM works best when the baby is less than 6 months old, the mother is exclusively breastfeeding, and her menstrual periods have not resumed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because LAM is specifically designed for postpartum women with infants less than 6 months old, focusing on the lactational infertility that occurs during exclusive breastfeeding.

2. To ensure the provision of appropriate services for overcoming infertility barriers to the achievement of reproductive intentions, Integrated Reproductive Health has incorporated a component of:

• A. Infertility
• B. Safe abortions
• C. STIs and HIV
• D. Family Planning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infertility. Integrated Reproductive Health incorporates a component focused on infertility to address barriers to achieving reproductive intentions. This inclusion is crucial as infertility can be a significant obstacle to reproductive health. Choice B, safe abortions, is incorrect as it is not directly related to overcoming infertility barriers. Choice C, STIs and HIV, while important for reproductive health, is not specifically addressing infertility. Choice D, family planning, although relevant for reproductive health, is not the primary focus when addressing infertility barriers.

3. Which contraceptive option suppresses sperm motility and inhibits the implantation of the blastocyst?

• A. Copper-T
• B. Diaphragm
• C. Contraceptive pills
• D. Condom

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Copper-T. Copper-T is an intrauterine device that releases copper ions, which suppress sperm motility and inhibit the implantation of the blastocyst. This method mainly works by preventing fertilization and, if fertilization occurs, by making the endometrium less receptive to implantation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The diaphragm is a barrier method that prevents sperm from reaching the cervix; contraceptive pills mainly work by suppressing ovulation and altering cervical mucus to prevent sperm from reaching the egg; condoms are barrier methods that prevent sperm from entering the vagina.

4. Which hormone is released from the testes?

• A. Progesterone
• B. Vasopressin
• C. Testosterone
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is testosterone. Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone produced in the testes. Progesterone is a female sex hormone primarily produced in the ovaries, not in the testes. Vasopressin is a hormone released by the pituitary gland to regulate water balance in the body, not produced by the testes. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.

5. Mrs. Banda is a patient at the ward with complaints of light menstrual periods, which occur at intervals greater than 35 days. Your diagnosis will be:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Menorrhagia
• C. Metrorrhagia
• D. Polymenorrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct diagnosis for Mrs. Banda's condition is Oligomenorrhea. Oligomenorrhea is characterized by light menstrual periods occurring at intervals longer than 35 days. Choice B, Menorrhagia, refers to abnormally heavy menstrual bleeding. Choice C, Metrorrhagia, is bleeding at irregular intervals, and Choice D, Polymenorrhea, involves menstrual cycles occurring at intervals shorter than 21 days.

Similar Questions