lactational amenorrhoea method lam is best for
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Reproductive Health Exam

1. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is best for:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clients with a baby less than 6 months postpartum. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is a highly effective temporary family planning method that is recommended for women who have recently given birth and are breastfeeding. LAM works best when the baby is less than 6 months old, the mother is exclusively breastfeeding, and her menstrual periods have not resumed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because LAM is specifically designed for postpartum women with infants less than 6 months old, focusing on the lactational infertility that occurs during exclusive breastfeeding.

2. Which female reproductive organ is positioned directly posterior to the bladder?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the uterus. The uterus is positioned directly posterior to the bladder in the female reproductive system. The uterine tube (choice A) is also known as the fallopian tube, which is not positioned directly posterior to the bladder. The vagina (choice B) is located below the uterus and not directly posterior to the bladder. The ovaries (choice D) are located on either side of the uterus, but they are not positioned directly posterior to the bladder.

3. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of vaginitis EXCEPT?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Vaginitis is characterized by symptoms such as vaginal itching, irritation, pain during coitus, and painful urination. However, heavy vaginal bleeding is not typically associated with vaginitis. Vaginal bleeding could be indicative of other conditions like cervical or endometrial issues, but it is not a common symptom of vaginitis.

4. What is the term used to describe the gestational sac surrounded by a blood clot and retained in the tube?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: a carneous mole. A carneous mole occurs when a gestational sac is surrounded by a blood clot and retained in the tube. Choice B, a hydatidiform mole, is incorrect as it refers to an abnormal pregnancy characterized by the presence of hydropic chorionic villi. Choice C, a vesicular mole, is also incorrect as it is another term for a complete hydatidiform mole. Choice D, a chorionic mole, is not a recognized medical term and is therefore incorrect.

5. Through which arteries does the blood supply to the external genitalia primarily occur?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pudendal arteries. The pudendal arteries are responsible for supplying blood to the external genitalia. These arteries specifically provide blood flow to the perineum, including the external genitalia. Choice A, Femoral arteries, are not primarily responsible for supplying blood to the external genitalia. Choice B, Inguinal arteries, do not supply blood directly to the external genitalia. Choice D, Internal iliac arteries, are not the main suppliers of blood to the external genitalia.

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