Nursing Elites

1. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?

• A. Threatened
• B. Imminent
• C. Missed
• D. Incomplete

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.

2. What laboratory values are not typically elevated in a patient with PCOS?

• A. LH
• B. Androgens
• C. Estrogens
• D. Prolactin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prolactin. Prolactin levels are not typically elevated in patients with PCOS. Elevated LH and androgens are commonly seen in PCOS patients. While estrogen levels can vary in PCOS, they are not consistently low or high in all cases.

3. At 8-12 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:

• A. Prickling, tingling sensation.
• B. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
• C. Darkening of the nipple.
• D. Breast start producing milk

Correct answer: D

Rationale: At 8-12 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes typically include the onset of colostrum production, not just tenderness. Colostrum is the first milk produced by the mammary glands during pregnancy. While some women may experience prickling or tingling sensations, prominent and mobile nipples, and darkening of the nipple, the key change during this time period is the production of colostrum. This substance is rich in antibodies and important for the newborn's initial nutrition. Therefore, the correct answer is not listed among the choices provided.

4. The GIFT technique is recommended for which of the following females?

• A. Females who cannot produce an ovum
• B. Females who cannot provide a suitable environment for fertilization
• C. Females who cannot retain the embryo inside the uterus
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' The GIFT technique is recommended for females who cannot produce an ovum, provide a suitable environment for fertilization, or retain the embryo inside the uterus. This technique involves transferring the unfertilized eggs and sperm directly into the fallopian tube, bypassing the need for the ovum to travel through the fallopian tube. Choices A, B, and C all represent different scenarios where the GIFT technique would be a suitable option, making option D the correct choice.

5. What is the most important factor in ensuring accessibility in reproductive health services?

• A. Ensuring that primary health care (PHC) services are available within a reasonable distance.
• B. Requiring patients to access multiple services to get the care they need.
• C. Providing reproductive health services only to those who can afford it.
• D. Providing health services only in urban areas.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ensuring that primary health care (PHC) services are available within a reasonable distance. Accessibility in reproductive health services is crucial for ensuring that individuals can easily access the care they need. Option B is incorrect because requiring patients to access multiple services can create barriers to care. Option C is incorrect as accessibility should not be limited based on financial means. Option D is incorrect because healthcare services should be available in both urban and rural areas to reach a wider population.

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