HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam
1. Appropriate Technologies and Skills involve:
- A. Selecting technologies according to universal standards.
- B. Ensuring a doctor is present at the service-providing facility.
- C. Requiring that health care providers are nurses.
- D. Selecting technologies that are easy to use but not necessarily effective.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Selecting technologies according to universal standards.' Appropriate technologies and skills involve choosing tools and methods based on universal standards to ensure effectiveness and efficiency. Choice B is incorrect because the presence of a doctor is not necessarily a defining factor for appropriate technologies and skills. Choice C is incorrect as appropriate technologies are not limited to being utilized only by nurses. Choice D is incorrect as the focus should be on selecting technologies that are both easy to use and effective, not one or the other.
2. What does Bidder's canal receive?
- A. Eggs
- B. Sperms
- C. Ammonia
- D. Oxygenated blood
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bidder's canal is a part of the male reproductive system and receives sperm from the testes. The other choices are incorrect because Bidder's canal is not associated with receiving eggs, ammonia, or oxygenated blood.
3. Amniocentesis, a prenatal diagnostic test used to determine fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities, is based on:
- A. The karyotyping of the amniotic fluid
- B. Chorionic villus sampling
- C. Umbilical cord blood sampling
- D. Ultrasound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid, which is extracted from the amniotic sac surrounding the developing fetus. This fluid contains cells shed by the fetus, which can be cultured and analyzed to obtain a karyotype, providing information about the fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the chorionic villi from the placenta, not the amniotic fluid; umbilical cord blood sampling is typically used for other purposes like assessing the baby's blood for infections or genetic disorders; and ultrasound is a diagnostic imaging technique that does not involve the analysis of fetal cells for genetic information.
4. Causes of metrorrhagia include:
- A. Cervical carcinoma
- B. Uterine polyp
- C. Cervical endometriosis
- D. Infections like Chlamydia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metrorrhagia refers to irregular menstrual bleeding that occurs between periods. Cervical carcinoma, a type of cancer that develops in the cervix, can lead to metrorrhagia. Uterine polyps, which are growths attached to the inner wall of the uterus, can also cause abnormal bleeding. While infections like Chlamydia can cause abnormal vaginal bleeding, they are not common causes of metrorrhagia. Cervical endometriosis, although a possible gynecological condition, is not a typical cause of metrorrhagia. Therefore, the correct answer is cervical carcinoma as it is a known cause of metrorrhagia, making the other options incorrect.
5. How many autosomes does a human primary spermatocyte have?
- A. 34
- B. 44
- C. 54
- D. 33
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A human primary spermatocyte has 44 autosomes. Autosomes are chromosomes that are not involved in determining an individual's sex. In humans, there are a total of 46 chromosomes in a somatic cell, with 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is 44 autosomes, making choice B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the accurate number of autosomes in a human primary spermatocyte.
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