HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam
1. Appropriate Technologies and Skills involve:
- A. Selecting technologies according to universal standards.
- B. Ensuring a doctor is present at the service-providing facility.
- C. Requiring that health care providers are nurses.
- D. Selecting technologies that are easy to use but not necessarily effective.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Selecting technologies according to universal standards.' Appropriate technologies and skills involve choosing tools and methods based on universal standards to ensure effectiveness and efficiency. Choice B is incorrect because the presence of a doctor is not necessarily a defining factor for appropriate technologies and skills. Choice C is incorrect as appropriate technologies are not limited to being utilized only by nurses. Choice D is incorrect as the focus should be on selecting technologies that are both easy to use and effective, not one or the other.
2. Amniocentesis, a prenatal diagnostic test used to determine fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities, is based on:
- A. The karyotyping of the amniotic fluid
- B. Chorionic villus sampling
- C. Umbilical cord blood sampling
- D. Ultrasound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid, which is extracted from the amniotic sac surrounding the developing fetus. This fluid contains cells shed by the fetus, which can be cultured and analyzed to obtain a karyotype, providing information about the fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the chorionic villi from the placenta, not the amniotic fluid; umbilical cord blood sampling is typically used for other purposes like assessing the baby's blood for infections or genetic disorders; and ultrasound is a diagnostic imaging technique that does not involve the analysis of fetal cells for genetic information.
3. Approximately how many primordial follicles are present in the cortex of the ovary at birth?
- A. 250,000
- B. 200,000
- C. 150,000
- D. 100,000
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 250,000. At birth, there are approximately 250,000 primordial follicles in the cortex of each ovary. These primordial follicles represent the reserve of oocytes that a female will have throughout her reproductive life. Choice B, 200,000, is incorrect as the number is higher. Choices C and D, 150,000 and 100,000 respectively, are also incorrect as they underestimate the actual number of primordial follicles present at birth.
4. Treatment for condylomata acuminata includes the following EXCEPT:
- A. Vulvectomy
- B. Podophyllin application
- C. Laser therapy
- D. Electrocautery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vulvectomy is not a standard treatment for condylomata acuminata, which are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Surgical removal of the vulva (vulvectomy) is an extreme measure and not typically indicated for treating this condition. Choices B, C, and D are valid treatments for condylomata acuminata. Podophyllin application, laser therapy, and electrocautery are commonly used to remove or destroy genital warts caused by HPV. These treatments aim to eliminate the visible warts and clear the infection.
5. In which part of the fallopian tube is tubal abortion most common?
- A. Ampullary portion
- B. Isthmus
- C. Interstitial portion
- D. Infundibulum
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tubal abortion is most common when the ovum implants in the interstitial portion of the fallopian tube. This location is the narrowest part of the tube, making it more prone to obstruction or difficulty in the passage of the fertilized ovum. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tubal abortion is more likely to occur in the interstitial portion rather than the ampullary portion, isthmus, or infundibulum of the fallopian tube.
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