Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension receives a prescription for enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which instruction should the nurse include in the medication teaching plan?

• A. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Report increased bruising or bleeding.
• C. Stop medication if a cough develops.
• D. Limit intake of leafy green vegetables.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the medication teaching plan is to 'Report increased bruising or bleeding.' ACE inhibitors can cause thrombocytopenia, which lowers platelet count and increases the risk of bruising and bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because while ACE inhibitors may cause potassium levels to increase, the instruction should not be to increase intake of potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin accumulation, and stopping the medication abruptly is not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to limit intake of leafy green vegetables specifically with ACE inhibitors; however, consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods is recommended to maintain a stable INR for clients taking anticoagulants.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a hemodialysis session. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum chloride

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum sodium. In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for hemodialysis, monitoring serum sodium levels closely is essential. Hemodialysis can cause rapid shifts in sodium levels, leading to electrolyte imbalances. While serum potassium (choice A) is important to monitor in CKD, it is not the most crucial before hemodialysis. Serum creatinine (choice B) is an indicator of kidney function but is not the most immediate concern before hemodialysis. Serum chloride (choice D) is not typically the primary electrolyte of concern in CKD patients before hemodialysis.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute
• B. Presence of a new murmur
• C. INR of 2.5
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The presence of a new murmur in a client with atrial fibrillation may indicate a valvular problem or other complications, requiring immediate reporting. A heart rate of 58 beats per minute is within the normal range for some individuals with atrial fibrillation, so it is not an immediate concern. An INR of 2.5 is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating appropriate anticoagulation. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.

4. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest
• B. Use of accessory muscles
• C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and indicates hypoxemia, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, the body's ability to oxygenate adequately is already compromised, so a saturation of 85% is particularly concerning. A barrel-shaped chest and use of accessory muscles are common findings in COPD due to chronic air trapping and increased work of breathing. While a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute is elevated, a low oxygen saturation is a more critical finding that necessitates prompt attention.

5. A client with hyperthyroidism who has not been responsive to medications is admitted for evaluation. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Review the client's medication history.
• C. Prepare the client for thyroid function tests.
• D. Initiate seizure precautions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a scenario where a client with hyperthyroidism is not responding to medications, the nurse's priority action should be to notify the healthcare provider. This is important because the client may require immediate intervention, such as adjusting the treatment plan or exploring alternative therapies. Reviewing the client's medication history (choice B) may be relevant but not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider. While preparing the client for thyroid function tests (choice C) may be necessary as part of the evaluation process, it is not the most immediate action to take. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not directly related to the non-responsiveness of medications in hyperthyroidism and is not a priority in this situation.

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