HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with hypertension receives a prescription for enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which instruction should the nurse include in the medication teaching plan?
- A. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Report increased bruising or bleeding.
- C. Stop medication if a cough develops.
- D. Limit intake of leafy green vegetables.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the medication teaching plan is to 'Report increased bruising or bleeding.' ACE inhibitors can cause thrombocytopenia, which lowers platelet count and increases the risk of bruising and bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because while ACE inhibitors may cause potassium levels to increase, the instruction should not be to increase intake of potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin accumulation, and stopping the medication abruptly is not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to limit intake of leafy green vegetables specifically with ACE inhibitors; however, consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods is recommended to maintain a stable INR for clients taking anticoagulants.
2. What types of medications should the healthcare provider expect to administer to a client during an acute respiratory distress episode?
- A. Vasodilators and hormones.
- B. Analgesics and sedatives.
- C. Anticoagulants and expectorants.
- D. Bronchodilators and steroids.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During an acute respiratory distress episode, the priority is to widen air passages, increase air space, and reduce alveolar membrane inflammation. Therefore, the client would likely require bronchodilators to open up the airways and steroids to reduce inflammation. Vasodilators and hormones (Choice A) are not typically indicated in this situation. Analgesics and sedatives (Choice B) may be used for pain management and anxiety but are not primary treatments for respiratory distress. Anticoagulants and expectorants (Choice C) are not the main medications used during an acute respiratory distress episode and may not address the immediate needs of the client.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient who will receive 10% calcium gluconate to treat a serum potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. The nurse performs a drug history prior to beginning the infusion. Which drug taken by the patient would cause concern?
- A. Digitalis
- B. Hydrochlorothiazide
- C. Hydrocortisone
- D. Vitamin D
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is administered to treat hyperkalemia by reducing myocardial irritability. When given to a patient taking digitalis, it can lead to digitalis toxicity. Digitalis and calcium gluconate both affect cardiac function, and their concomitant use can potentiate adverse effects. Hydrochlorothiazide, Hydrocortisone, and Vitamin D may impact potassium levels, but they do not interact with calcium gluconate in a way that would cause concern for toxicity.
4. In assessing cancer risk, which woman is at greatest risk of developing breast cancer?
- A. A 35-year-old multipara who never breastfed.
- B. A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
- C. A 55-year-old whose mother-in-law had bilateral breast cancer.
- D. A 20-year-old whose menarche occurred at age 9.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because family history of breast cancer, specifically in the mother, is a significant risk factor for developing breast cancer. The age of 50 is also a risk factor for breast cancer. Choice A is less likely as breastfeeding can actually reduce the risk of breast cancer. Choice C is less relevant since the risk is higher with a direct family member. Choice D, although early menarche is a risk factor, the age of the individual is much lower compared to the other age-related risk factors.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The healthcare professional reviews the client's record and determines that the client was at risk for developing the potassium deficit because the client:
- A. Has renal failure.
- B. Requires nasogastric suction.
- C. Has a history of Addison's disease.
- D. Is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nasogastric suction can lead to significant potassium loss due to the continuous drainage of gastric contents, increasing the risk of a potassium deficit. Choices A, C, and D do not directly result in the significant loss of potassium. Renal failure may lead to potassium retention rather than a deficit. Addison's disease is associated with adrenal insufficiency, not potassium depletion. Potassium-sparing diuretics, as the name suggests, typically help retain potassium rather than cause a deficit.