Nursing Elites

1. If a client displays risk factors for coronary artery disease, such as smoking cigarettes, eating a diet high in saturated fat, or leading a sedentary lifestyle, techniques of behavior modification may be used to help the client change the behavior. The nurse can best reinforce new adaptive behaviors by:

• A. Explaining how the risk factor behaviors lead to poor health.
• B. Withholding praise until the new behavior is well established.
• C. Rewarding the client whenever the acceptable behavior is performed.
• D. Instilling mild fear in the client to extinguish the behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fundamental principle of behavior modification is that behavior that is rewarded is more likely to be continued. Therefore, rewarding the client whenever the acceptable behavior is performed is the best approach to reinforce new adaptive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because simply explaining how the risk factor behaviors lead to poor health may not be as effective in promoting behavior change compared to positive reinforcement. Choice B is incorrect because withholding praise can hinder progress and motivation for the client. Choice D is incorrect because instilling fear is not a recommended method in behavior modification. It can lead to negative psychological effects and is not a sustainable approach to behavior change.

2. A client with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) asks, “Will my children develop this disease?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. No genetic link is known, so your children are not at increased risk.
• B. Your sons will develop this disease because it has a sex-linked gene.
• C. Only if both you and your spouse are carriers of this disease.
• D. Each of your children has a 50% risk of having ADPKD.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Children whose parent has the autosomal dominant form of PKD have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene that causes the disease. ADPKD is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait and therefore is not gender-specific. Both parents do not need to have this disorder. Choice A is incorrect because ADPKD has a known genetic link and a definitive mode of inheritance. Choice B is incorrect as ADPKD is not sex-linked but autosomal dominant. Choice C is incorrect because ADPKD follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and does not require both parents to be carriers for the child to inherit the disease.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient who is newly admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse reviews the patient’s admission electrolytes and notes a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action by the nurse is correct?

• A. Administer the digoxin and monitor the patient’s electrocardiogram closely.
• B. Hold the digoxin dose and notify the provider of the patient’s lab values.
• C. Request an order for an intravenous bolus of potassium.
• D. Request an order for oral potassium supplements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the patient has a low serum potassium level, which can predispose the patient to digoxin toxicity. It is essential for the nurse to hold the digoxin dose and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the abnormal lab values. Option A is incorrect because administering digoxin without addressing the low potassium level can potentiate toxicity. Option C is inappropriate as potassium should not be given as an IV bolus, especially in the case of hypokalemia. Option D is incorrect because oral potassium supplements may not be sufficient for rapidly correcting severe hypokalemia in an acute care setting.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) to treat anemia. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Infection.
• D. Edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a medication used to treat anemia in clients with chronic renal failure. One common side effect of this medication is hypertension. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to an increase in blood pressure. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypertension while on this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypotension is not typically associated with epoetin alfa administration. Infection is not a direct side effect of epoetin alfa. Edema is also not a common side effect of this medication.

5. What is a key intervention for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Administering insulin
• B. Administering IV fluids
• C. Administering oral glucose
• D. Administering oral fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering insulin is a crucial intervention for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) because it helps in managing hyperglycemia and ketosis by promoting the uptake of glucose by cells and inhibiting the production of ketones. IV fluids are necessary to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA but are not the primary treatment for the condition. Administering oral glucose would exacerbate hyperglycemia in a patient with DKA, while administering oral fluids alone would not effectively address the underlying metabolic disturbances seen in DKA.

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