HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. To help minimize the risk of postoperative respiratory complications after a hypophysectomy, during preoperative teaching, the nurse should instruct the client how to:
- A. Use incentive spirometry.
- B. Turn in bed.
- C. Take deep breaths.
- D. Cough.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client on how to take deep breaths. Deep breathing exercises are essential in preventing postoperative respiratory complications like atelectasis by promoting lung expansion. Using incentive spirometry is a more specific and advanced method of promoting deep breathing and lung expansion, making it a better choice than just turning in bed. While turning in bed may help with overall comfort and positioning, it is not as directly related to respiratory complications as deep breathing exercises. Coughing, although important for clearing secretions, is not as effective in preventing atelectasis as deep breathing exercises.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease starts on hemodialysis. During the first dialysis treatment, the client's blood pressure drops from 150/90 to 80/30. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Stop the dialysis treatment
- B. Administer 5% albumin IV
- C. Monitor blood pressure every 45 minutes
- D. Lower the head of the chair and elevate feet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take when a client's blood pressure drops significantly during hemodialysis is to lower the head of the chair and elevate the feet. This position adjustment helps improve blood flow to the brain and vital organs, assisting in stabilizing blood pressure. Stopping the dialysis treatment immediately may not be necessary if the blood pressure can be managed effectively by position changes. Administering 5% albumin IV is not the first-line intervention for hypotension during dialysis. Monitoring blood pressure every 45 minutes is important but not the immediate action needed to address the significant drop in blood pressure observed during the dialysis session.
3. A client has been scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). For which of the following conditions, a contraindication to MRI, does the nurse check the client’s medical history?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Pacemaker insertion
- C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- D. Chronic airway limitation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pacemaker insertion. Patients with metal devices or implants are contraindicated for MRI. These include pacemakers, orthopedic hardware, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, and intrauterine devices. These metal objects can be affected by the strong magnetic field of the MRI, leading to serious risks for the patient. Pancreatitis (choice A), Type 1 diabetes mellitus (choice C), and chronic airway limitation (choice D) are not contraindications to MRI based on the presence of metal objects. Therefore, the nurse should be particularly concerned about pacemaker insertion when reviewing the client's medical history prior to an MRI.
4. During spring break, a young adult presents to the urgent care clinic and reports a stiff neck, a fever for the past 6 hours, and a headache. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?
- A. Initiate isolation precautions
- B. Administer an antipyretic
- C. Draw blood cultures
- D. Prepare for lumbar puncture
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate isolation precautions. This is the priority action because the patient presents with symptoms that could be indicative of meningitis, an infectious disease that requires isolation to prevent its spread. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help manage the fever but does not address the need for isolation. Drawing blood cultures (Choice C) and preparing for a lumbar puncture (Choice D) are important steps in diagnosing meningitis but should come after initiating isolation precautions to prevent potential transmission of the infection to others.
5. After a client with peripheral vascular disease undergoes a right femoral-popliteal bypass graft, their blood pressure drops from 124/80 to 94/62. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. IV fluid infusion.
- B. Pedal pulses.
- C. Nasal cannula oxygen flow rate.
- D. Capillary refill time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing pedal pulses is crucial in this situation as it helps determine the adequacy of perfusion to the lower extremity following a bypass graft. A decrease in blood pressure postoperatively could indicate decreased perfusion, making the assessment of pedal pulses a priority to ensure proper circulation. Checking IV fluid infusion, nasal cannula oxygen flow rate, or capillary refill time are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not provide direct information about perfusion to the affected extremity.
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