Nursing Elites

1. A community health nurse is conducting a neighborhood discussion group about disaster planning. What information regarding transmission of anthrax should the nurse provide to the group?

• A. Infection is acquired when anthrax spores enter a host.
• B. Mature anthrax bacteria live dormant on inanimate objects.
• C. Spores cannot survive for extended periods outside a living host.
• D. Anthrax is transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection is acquired when anthrax spores enter a host. Anthrax is primarily transmitted through spores entering the body, either through the skin, inhalation, or ingestion. Person-to-person transmission of anthrax is extremely rare and not a significant mode of transmission. Choices B and C are incorrect because mature anthrax bacteria do not live dormant on inanimate objects, and spores can survive for extended periods outside a living host. Choice D is incorrect as anthrax is not transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person.

2. A client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has an elevated blood glucose level. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Stop the TPN infusion.
• B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Check the TPN infusion rate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a client receiving TPN with an elevated blood glucose level is to check the TPN infusion rate. Elevated blood glucose levels in clients receiving TPN can be due to incorrect infusion rates leading to increased glucose delivery. By checking the TPN infusion rate, the nurse can verify if the rate is appropriate and make necessary adjustments. Stopping the TPN infusion abruptly could lead to complications from sudden nutrient deprivation. Administering insulin as prescribed may be necessary but should come after ensuring the correct TPN infusion rate. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but addressing the immediate need to check the infusion rate takes priority to manage hyperglycemia effectively.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Urine output is decreased.
• B. Thirst is decreased.
• C. Weight loss is observed.
• D. Urine specific gravity is within the normal range.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetes insipidus, the body loses excessive amounts of water, leading to diluted urine with low specific gravity. Therefore, when the urine specific gravity is within the normal range, it indicates that the kidneys are properly concentrating urine, which is a sign of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in diabetes insipidus, there is polyuria (excessive urination), persistent thirst due to fluid loss, and potential weight loss due to fluid imbalance, so these findings would not indicate effective treatment.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with unilateral leg swelling. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Elevate the affected leg on a pillow.
• B. Apply a warm compress to the affected leg.
• C. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected leg.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and unilateral leg swelling is to elevate the affected leg on a pillow. Elevating the affected leg helps reduce swelling and pain by promoting venous return and preventing stasis of blood flow. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may increase inflammation and worsen the condition. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) and encouraging ambulation (Choice D) can dislodge a clot and lead to potential embolism, making these choices contraindicated in a client with DVT.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with pulmonary edema. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• C. Jugular vein distention.
• D. Productive cough with pink, frothy sputum.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A productive cough with pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory compromise and worsening of the condition. Peripheral edema (Choice A) is a manifestation of heart failure but is not as urgent as addressing pulmonary edema. Oxygen saturation of 88% (Choice B) is low and requires attention, but the pink, frothy sputum signifies acute respiratory distress. Jugular vein distention (Choice C) can be seen in heart failure, but the immediate concern in this scenario is addressing the pulmonary edema to ensure adequate gas exchange and oxygenation.

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