Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is developing a series of childbirth preparation classes for primigravida women and their significant others. What is the priority expected outcome for these classes?

• A. Participants can identify at least three coping strategies to use during labor.
• B. Participants can list signs of labor and when to come to the hospital.
• C. Participants can describe three pain relief measures to use during labor.
• D. Participants can perform three relaxation techniques to use during labor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority expected outcome for childbirth preparation classes is for participants to be able to identify coping strategies to use during labor. This is crucial as coping strategies can help women manage pain, stress, and anxiety during childbirth. Choice B is important but does not focus on coping strategies needed during labor. Choice C is relevant but focuses solely on pain relief measures which are a part of coping strategies. Choice D is also relevant but does not encompass all aspects of coping with labor effectively.

2. A client with hyperthyroidism is receiving radioactive iodine therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should avoid close contact with pregnant women and children for a few days.
• B. I may experience dry mouth and taste changes for a few days.
• C. I may experience some neck swelling.
• D. I should expect to have no side effects.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D.' The client stating 'I should expect to have no side effects' indicates a need for further teaching as it is incorrect. With radioactive iodine therapy, side effects like dry mouth, taste changes, and neck swelling are common. Choices A and B are correct statements; the client should avoid close contact with pregnant women and children due to radiation exposure, and dry mouth and taste changes are common side effects. Choice C is also correct, making D the correct answer.

3. The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 before administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer the dose as prescribed.
• B. Hold the medication.
• C. Call the healthcare provider.
• D. Repeat the vital signs in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to administer the dose as prescribed. Verapamil slows sinoatrial nodal automaticity and delays atrioventricular nodal conduction, which helps in slowing the ventricular rate. The heart rate of 92 and blood pressure of 110/76 are within an acceptable range for administering verapamil in a client with atrial flutter. Holding the medication, calling the healthcare provider, or repeating the vital signs in 30 minutes are not necessary based on the vital signs obtained and the action of verapamil in this scenario.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• B. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Client reports seeing halos around lights.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seeing halos around lights is a symptom of digoxin toxicity, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. This visual disturbance is a serious adverse effect of digoxin and indicates potential toxicity. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention related to digoxin administration.

5. Which client has the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia?

• A. a 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children
• B. a 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing
• C. a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes
• D. a 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This client has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to multiple factors such as homelessness, substance abuse, and smoking. Homelessness can lead to poor living conditions and limited access to healthcare, increasing susceptibility to infections. Alcoholism and smoking weaken the immune system, making individuals more vulnerable to respiratory infections like pneumonia. Choices A, B, and D do not present the same level of risk factors for pneumonia compared to choice C.

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