Nursing Elites

1. During a 2-week postoperative follow-up home visit, a female client who had gastric bypass surgery exhibits abdominal tenderness, shoulder pain, and describes feelings of malaise. Her vital signs are: T 101.8, BP 100/50, HR 104, and RR 18. Which action should the RN take?

• A. have the client transported via ambulance to the hospital
• B. recheck the client's vital signs in 30 minutes
• C. instruct the client to drive to the hospital for admission
• D. assess the client's current symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is presenting with signs of a potential postoperative complication, such as fever, low blood pressure, and tachycardia, which could indicate sepsis or another serious issue. These symptoms require immediate hospital evaluation and management. Option B of rechecking vital signs in 30 minutes could delay crucial intervention in a potentially life-threatening situation. Option C is unsafe as the client should not drive herself due to her condition. Option D is vague and does not address the urgency of the situation.

2. The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
• B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
• C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
• D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.

3. When caring for a client with a chest tube, which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care?

• A. Maintain continuous suction on the chest tube.
• B. Clamp the chest tube during client movement.
• C. Ensure that the chest tube is clamped for at least 8 hours each day.
• D. Keep the collection chamber below the level of the chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Keeping the collection chamber below the level of the chest is crucial in caring for a client with a chest tube. This positioning helps ensure proper drainage of fluids and prevents complications such as backflow of drainage into the chest cavity. Option A is incorrect as continuous suction can lead to excessive drainage and tissue damage. Option B is incorrect as clamping the chest tube during client movement can cause a buildup of pressure and compromise proper drainage. Option C is incorrect because clamping the chest tube for extended periods can impede the drainage process, leading to potential complications.

4. A client with hyperthyroidism is receiving radioactive iodine therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should avoid close contact with pregnant women and children for a few days.
• B. I may experience dry mouth and taste changes for a few days.
• C. I may experience some neck swelling.
• D. I should expect to have no side effects.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D.' The client stating 'I should expect to have no side effects' indicates a need for further teaching as it is incorrect. With radioactive iodine therapy, side effects like dry mouth, taste changes, and neck swelling are common. Choices A and B are correct statements; the client should avoid close contact with pregnant women and children due to radiation exposure, and dry mouth and taste changes are common side effects. Choice C is also correct, making D the correct answer.

5. The client is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will use a soft toothbrush and an electric razor.
• C. I will keep all appointments for blood tests.
• D. I will avoid participating in contact sports.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because participating in contact sports can increase the risk of injury and bleeding in a client receiving warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner, and activities with a higher risk of injury should be avoided to prevent bleeding complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements for a client on warfarin therapy. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain consistent anticoagulation levels, using a soft toothbrush and an electric razor reduces the risk of bleeding gums and cuts, and keeping appointments for blood tests ensures proper monitoring of the client's international normalized ratio (INR) levels.

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