Nursing Elites

1. During a 2-week postoperative follow-up home visit, a female client who had gastric bypass surgery exhibits abdominal tenderness, shoulder pain, and describes feelings of malaise. Her vital signs are: T 101.8, BP 100/50, HR 104, and RR 18. Which action should the RN take?

• A. have the client transported via ambulance to the hospital
• B. recheck the client's vital signs in 30 minutes
• C. instruct the client to drive to the hospital for admission
• D. assess the client's current symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is presenting with signs of a potential postoperative complication, such as fever, low blood pressure, and tachycardia, which could indicate sepsis or another serious issue. These symptoms require immediate hospital evaluation and management. Option B of rechecking vital signs in 30 minutes could delay crucial intervention in a potentially life-threatening situation. Option C is unsafe as the client should not drive herself due to her condition. Option D is vague and does not address the urgency of the situation.

2. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with cirrhosis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Ascites.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Spider angiomas.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Peripheral edema in a client with cirrhosis can indicate fluid overload and worsening liver function, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as respiratory distress, cardiac issues, or renal impairment. Jaundice (choice A) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Ascites (choice B) is also a common complication of cirrhosis that may require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing peripheral edema. Spider angiomas (choice D) are typically benign skin lesions associated with cirrhosis but do not require immediate intervention unless bleeding or rupture occurs.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.5 g/dL.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL.
• D. Serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL. An elevated serum ammonia level indicates hepatic dysfunction and can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Options A, B, and C are within normal ranges or slightly abnormal values for clients with cirrhosis and do not pose an immediate threat. Serum albumin levels may indicate malnutrition, prothrombin time may reflect liver synthetic function, and hemoglobin levels can be affected by various factors but do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

4. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

• A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
• B. On the left side with legs elevated.
• C. On the right side with legs elevated.
• D. Prone with head elevated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

5. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

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