HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A nurse is assessing the status of a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse concludes that the client is exhibiting adequate diabetic control if the serum level of glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) is less than:
- A. 7%
- B. 9%
- C. 10%
- D. 15%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 7%. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) level of 7.0% or less is considered indicative of adequate diabetic control. This level reflects good long-term blood sugar management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an HbA1C level above 7% indicates poor diabetic control and an increased risk of complications associated with diabetes, such as cardiovascular disease, neuropathy, and retinopathy.
2. Which client should the nurse recognize as most likely to experience sleep apnea?
- A. Middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly.
- B. Obese older male client with a short, thick neck.
- C. Adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy.
- D. School-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sleep apnea is characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep, often due to a collapsed or blocked airway. Obesity and having a short, thick neck are risk factors for sleep apnea because excess fat around the neck can obstruct the airway. Option A (middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly) does not present as a common risk factor for sleep apnea. Option C (adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy) may have had tonsils removed, which could reduce the risk of sleep apnea. Option D (school-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder) is not directly associated with an increased risk of sleep apnea.
3. The client with chronic renal failure is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer the prescribed antibiotics.
- B. Monitor for signs of infection.
- C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- D. Monitor the client's weight daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in clients undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is a severe complication associated with peritoneal dialysis, making it essential to promptly identify any signs of infection, such as abdominal pain, cloudy dialysate, fever, and an elevated white blood cell count. Administering antibiotics without proper assessment can lead to antibiotic resistance and should not be the initial action. Encouraging increased fluid intake may not be appropriate without assessing the client's fluid status. Monitoring weight alone does not address the immediate risk of peritonitis in a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis.
4. The client is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Administer anticoagulants to prevent clot formation.
- B. Monitor the client for signs of infection.
- C. Provide the client with a high-protein diet.
- D. Encourage the client to drink at least 2 liters of fluid daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in clients receiving hemodialysis because they are at an increased risk of infection due to the invasive nature of the procedure. Administering anticoagulants is not typically a part of the routine care for clients undergoing hemodialysis unless specifically prescribed. While a high-protein diet may be beneficial for some clients, it is not a specific intervention related to hemodialysis. Encouraging fluid intake must be individualized based on the client's fluid status and should not be a generalized recommendation for all clients receiving hemodialysis.
5. A client who has just undergone bronchoscopy was returned to the nursing unit 1 hour ago. With which assessment finding is the nurse most concerned?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 97%
- B. Equal breath sounds in both lungs
- C. Absence of cough and gag reflexes
- D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The absence of cough and gag reflexes is the most concerning finding for the nurse because it indicates a lack of protective airway reflexes, putting the client at risk of aspiration. Oxygen saturation of 97% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. Equal breath sounds in both lungs are a positive finding, indicating no significant abnormalities. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min is also within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Therefore, the absence of cough and gag reflexes poses the highest risk to the client's airway safety.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access