HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A nurse is assessing the status of a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse concludes that the client is exhibiting adequate diabetic control if the serum level of glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) is less than:
- A. 7%
- B. 9%
- C. 10%
- D. 15%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 7%. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) level of 7.0% or less is considered indicative of adequate diabetic control. This level reflects good long-term blood sugar management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an HbA1C level above 7% indicates poor diabetic control and an increased risk of complications associated with diabetes, such as cardiovascular disease, neuropathy, and retinopathy.
2. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to:
- A. Control chest pain.
- B. Reduce coronary artery vasospasm.
- C. Control the arrhythmias associated with MI.
- D. Revascularize the blocked coronary artery.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Alteplase recombinant, or t-PA, is a thrombolytic enzyme used to dissolve clots and revascularize the blocked coronary artery in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Administering t-PA within the first 6 hours of MI onset is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and minimize cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, the correct answer is to revascularize the blocked coronary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while controlling chest pain, reducing coronary artery vasospasm, and managing arrhythmias are important goals in managing MI, the primary purpose of administering t-PA within the first 6 hours is to restore blood flow by dissolving clots and revascularizing the blocked coronary artery.
3. A client is scheduled for an arteriogram. The nurse should explain to the client that the arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by:
- A. Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation.
- B. Scanning the affected extremity and identifying the areas of volume changes.
- C. Using ultrasound to estimate the velocity changes in the blood vessels.
- D. Determining how long the client can walk.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation. An arteriogram is a diagnostic procedure that involves injecting a contrast agent to visualize the blood vessels and identify the location of any obstructions. This helps confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by showing where the blockage is located and how collateral circulation is compensating for the reduced blood flow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because scanning the extremity, estimating velocity changes with ultrasound, or determining walking distance are not the primary purposes of an arteriogram in diagnosing occlusive arterial disease.
4. A client with bladder cancer who underwent a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to urgently contact the healthcare provider?
- A. The ileostomy is draining blood-tinged urine.
- B. There is serous sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- C. The ileostomy stoma appears pale and cyanotic.
- D. Oxygen saturations are 92% on room air.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pale or cyanotic appearance of the ileostomy stoma indicates compromised circulation, which can lead to necrosis if not promptly addressed. On the other hand, blood-tinged urine and serous sanguineous drainage are common following a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit. These findings do not typically indicate an urgent issue. An oxygen saturation of 92% on room air is slightly below the normal range but does not warrant urgent healthcare provider contact unless accompanied by significant respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms.
5. A healthcare professional is reading the chest x-ray report of a client who has just been intubated. The report states that the tip of the endotracheal tube lies 1 cm above the carina. The healthcare professional interprets that the tube is positioned above:
- A. The first tracheal cartilaginous ring
- B. The point where the larynx connects to the trachea
- C. The bifurcation of the right and left main stem bronchi
- D. The area connecting the oropharynx to the laryngopharynx
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The carina is a cartilaginous ridge that separates the openings of the two main stem (right and left) bronchi. If an endotracheal tube is inserted past the carina, the tube will enter the right main stem bronchus due to the natural curvature of the airway. This positioning is dangerous as only the right lung will be ventilated. It can be identified as only the right lung will have breath sounds and rise and fall with ventilation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the specific anatomical landmark mentioned in the scenario.
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