Nursing Elites

1. After surgery, a male client with antisocial personality disorder frequently requests a specific nurse be assigned to his care and becomes belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Reassure the client that his request will be met whenever possible.
• B. Advise the client that assignments are not based on client requests.
• C. Ask the client to explain why he constantly requests the nurse.
• D. Encourage the client to verbalize his feelings about the nurse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse is to advise the client that assignments are not based on client requests. Clients with antisocial personality disorder may attempt to manipulate situations to their advantage. By setting clear boundaries and explaining that assignments are not based on client preferences, the nurse helps prevent manipulation and maintains a professional approach to care. Reassuring the client about his requests (Choice A) may encourage the inappropriate behavior to continue. Asking the client to explain his requests (Choice C) may further fuel the manipulation by providing an opportunity for the client to justify his actions. Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue of manipulating the assignment process and may inadvertently reinforce the behavior.

2. A client with Bulimia and depression who is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 90 mg daily is admitted to an acute care hospital for uncontrolled hypertension. What dietary choices should the RN instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Pan-seared catfish.
• B. Pepperoni pizza.
• C. Deep-fried shrimp.
• D. Beef strips with gravy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking MAO inhibitors like phenelzine, foods containing tyramine should be avoided. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAO inhibitors and lead to a hypertensive crisis. Beef strips with gravy contain tyramine, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not specifically contraindicated with MAO inhibitors.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which symptom should the healthcare professional expect to find?

• A. Persistent thoughts about the trauma.
• B. Increased energy and enthusiasm.
• C. Decreased need for sleep.
• D. Increased appetite and weight gain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Persistent thoughts about the trauma. In post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), individuals often experience persistent intrusive thoughts about the traumatic event, which can be distressing and disruptive. This symptom is a hallmark feature of PTSD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, enthusiasm, decreased need for sleep, increased appetite, and weight gain are not typical symptoms of PTSD. Instead, individuals with PTSD may commonly experience symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares, hypervigilance, avoidance of triggers related to the trauma, and negative changes in mood and cognition.

4. What principle about patient-nurse communication should guide a nurse's fear of 'saying the wrong thing' to a patient?

• A. Patients tend to appreciate a well-meaning person who conveys genuine acceptance, respect, and concern for their situation.
• B. The patient is more interested in talking to you than listening to what you have to say and is not likely to be offended.
• C. Considering the patient's history, there is little chance that the comment will do any actual harm.
• D. Most people with a mental illness have by necessity developed a high tolerance for forgiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct principle guiding nurse-patient communication is that patients value genuine acceptance, respect, and concern. Choice A is the correct answer because showing genuine care and concern for the patient's situation fosters a positive and therapeutic relationship. Choice B is incorrect as effective communication involves active listening and responding appropriately, not assuming the patient is only interested in talking. Choice C is incorrect because a patient's history does not guarantee immunity to harm from inappropriate comments. Choice D is incorrect as it generalizes individuals with mental illness and forgiveness, which is not directly related to communication fears.

5. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior around age 14, which caused him to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:

• A. Favorable with medication
• B. In the relapse stage
• C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
• D. To have a less positive outcome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of early and slow onset of schizophrenia, the prognosis is generally less positive. This means that the outlook for individuals like Gilbert, who showed signs of schizophrenia at a young age, is often poorer. Option A is incorrect because while medication can help manage symptoms, the overall prognosis is still less favorable. Option B is incorrect since relapse stage typically refers to a period of worsening symptoms after initial improvement. Option C is incorrect because while psychosocial interventions can be beneficial, the underlying early and slow onset of schizophrenia indicates a less positive outcome.

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