HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. The nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is exhibiting symptoms of paranoia. Which behavior would the nurse most likely observe?
- A. The client is seen as unmotivated and withdrawn.
- B. The client is preoccupied with a fear of being harmed.
- C. The client displays a blunted affect and lacks emotional response.
- D. The client avoids group activities and shows decreased appetite.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with paranoia, they typically exhibit an intense fear of being harmed, persecuted, or targeted by others. This fear often dominates their thoughts and can significantly impact their daily functioning and interactions. Choice A, being unmotivated and withdrawn, is more indicative of negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as avolition and social withdrawal. Choice C, displaying a blunted affect and lacking emotional response, is associated with flat affect, a symptom commonly seen in schizophrenia but not specific to paranoia. Choice D, avoiding group activities and showing decreased appetite, may be related to various symptoms or side effects, but it is not a defining characteristic of paranoia in schizophrenia.
2. A client with Bulimia and depression who is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 90 mg daily is admitted to an acute care hospital for uncontrolled hypertension. What dietary choices should the RN instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Pan-seared catfish.
- B. Pepperoni pizza.
- C. Deep-fried shrimp.
- D. Beef strips with gravy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is taking MAO inhibitors like phenelzine, foods containing tyramine should be avoided. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAO inhibitors and lead to a hypertensive crisis. Beef strips with gravy contain tyramine, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not specifically contraindicated with MAO inhibitors.
3. A client who is admitted with a closed head injury after a fall has a blood alcohol level (BAL) of 0.28 (28%) and is difficult to arouse. Which intervention during the first 6 hours following admission should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Place in a side-lying position with head of bed elevated.
- B. Administer disulfiram (Antabuse) immediately
- C. Give lorazepam (Ativan) PRN for signs of withdrawal.
- D. Provide thiamine and folate supplements as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Maintain the patient's airway is the priority for a client who is intoxicated and obtunded.
4. A client with an eating disorder is being treated in a behavioral health unit. Which behavior would the nurse expect to see if the client is responding positively to the treatment?
- A. Adherence to the treatment plan and increased self-care activities.
- B. Increased isolation from others.
- C. Frequent complaining about treatment procedures.
- D. Refusal to eat meals provided by the unit.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A positive response to treatment for a client with an eating disorder is indicated by adherence to the treatment plan and an increase in self-care activities. These behaviors show that the client is actively engaging in their treatment and taking steps towards recovery. Option B, increased isolation from others, is not indicative of a positive response to treatment as it may suggest withdrawal or avoidance. Option C, frequent complaining about treatment procedures, is not a behavior that signifies a positive response; it may indicate dissatisfaction or discomfort with the treatment. Option D, refusal to eat meals provided by the unit, is also not a positive response as it could suggest continued resistance to treatment and potential worsening of symptoms.
5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing behavioral therapy. Which outcome should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is responding positively to therapy?
- A. The client reports increased frequency of obsessive thoughts.
- B. The client demonstrates a decrease in compulsive behaviors.
- C. The client expresses a desire to leave therapy early.
- D. The client avoids participating in exposure tasks.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A decrease in compulsive behaviors is a positive response to behavioral therapy for OCD. Behavioral therapy aims to reduce these behaviors and promote healthier coping mechanisms. Option A, reporting an increased frequency of obsessive thoughts, would indicate a lack of improvement or worsening of symptoms. Option C, expressing a desire to leave therapy early, suggests resistance or dissatisfaction with therapy. Option D, avoiding participation in exposure tasks, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is commonly used in OCD treatment to help clients confront their fears and reduce anxiety.
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