HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the respiratory status. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 90%, though low, may not require immediate intervention as it is above the typical threshold for initiating supplemental oxygen. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, falls within the normal range for an adult and may not be an immediate cause for concern. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, are indicative of fluid in the lungs but may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs like decreased oxygen saturation or increased respiratory distress.
2. A male client with HIV receiving saquinavir PO in combination with other antiretrovirals reports constant hunger and thirst but is losing weight. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Use a glucometer to check glucose level.
- B. Teach client to measure weight accurately.
- C. Explain that medication dose may need to be increased.
- D. Reassure client weight will increase as viral load decreases.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to use a glucometer to check the client's glucose level. Saquinavir, an HIV medication, can lead to hyperglycemia, which may cause symptoms like constant hunger and thirst while losing weight. Checking the glucose level will help assess for hyperglycemia. Choice B is not the priority in this situation as the client's weight loss is a concerning symptom that needs immediate attention. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the medication dose without assessing the glucose level first could exacerbate hyperglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the symptoms of constant hunger, thirst, and weight loss, which may indicate a more urgent issue like hyperglycemia.
3. The client is unable to void, and the plan of care sets an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document to indicate a successful outcome?
- A. Drinks adequate fluids.
- B. Void without difficulty.
- C. Feels less thirsty.
- D. Drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift indicates a fluid intake of 1200 mL, which exceeds the minimum objective of at least 1000 mL. The client meeting or exceeding the fluid intake goal is a clear indicator of a successful outcome. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because simply drinking adequate fluids, voiding without difficulty, or feeling less thirsty do not directly demonstrate meeting the specific objective of fluid intake set in the care plan.
4. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- B. Begin continuous fetal monitoring
- C. Check the amniotic fluid pH
- D. Assess maternal vital signs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.
5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
- B. Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV push.
- C. Insert a Foley catheter to monitor urine output.
- D. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the priority intervention for a client with pulmonary edema to improve oxygenation and address respiratory distress. Adequate oxygenation is essential to support vital organ function. Administering furosemide intravenously, inserting a Foley catheter to monitor urine output, and positioning the client in a high Fowler's position are important interventions but are secondary to ensuring optimal oxygenation in this client with pulmonary edema.