Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the respiratory status. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 90%, though low, may not require immediate intervention as it is above the typical threshold for initiating supplemental oxygen. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, falls within the normal range for an adult and may not be an immediate cause for concern. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, are indicative of fluid in the lungs but may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs like decreased oxygen saturation or increased respiratory distress.

2. A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus
• B. Administer an antiemetic intravenously
• C. Insert a nasogastric tube
• D. Prepare the client for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.

3. The nurse is teaching a male client with multiple sclerosis how to empty his bladder using the Crede Method. When performing a return demonstration, the client applies pressure to the umbilical areas of his abdomen. What instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Stroke the inner thigh below the perineum to initiate urinary flow
• B. Contract, hold, and then relax the pubococcygeal muscle
• C. Pour warm water over the external sphincter at the distal glans
• D. Apply downward manual pressure at the suprapubic regions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is applying pressure in the wrong region (umbilical area) and should be instructed to apply pressure at the suprapubic area. Applying downward manual pressure at the suprapubic region helps in emptying the bladder effectively by assisting in pushing the urine out through the urethra. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific issue of applying pressure to help empty the bladder using the Crede Method.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
• B. Serum glucose of 200 mg/dl
• C. Serum pH of 7.30
• D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS), a serum pH of 7.30 is the most concerning value as it indicates acidosis, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not the most concerning in this scenario. A low serum potassium level (Choice A) may be expected due to cellular shift in hyperglycemia, a serum glucose level of 200 mg/dl (Choice B) is not as concerning compared to the extremely high initial glucose level, and a serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L (Choice D) is within the normal range and not the immediate priority.

5. The nurse enters a client's room to administer scheduled daily medications and observes the client leaning forward and using pursed lip breathing. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement first?

• A. Evaluate the oxygen saturation.
• B. Administer a bronchodilator.
• C. Assist the client to sit upright.
• D. Encourage slow, deep breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first evaluate the oxygen saturation. This action is crucial as it provides immediate information on the client's respiratory status. Assessing the oxygen saturation can help determine the adequacy of oxygenation and guide further interventions. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice B) may be necessary based on assessment findings, but it should not be the first action without knowing the oxygen saturation level. While assisting the client to sit upright (Choice C) is generally beneficial for respiratory function, in this case, assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence. Encouraging slow, deep breathing (Choice D) can be helpful, but it is secondary to evaluating the oxygen saturation in this situation.

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