Nursing Elites

1. Following the diagnosis of angina pectoris, a client reports being unable to walk up two flights of stairs without pain. Which of the following measures would most likely help the client prevent this problem?

• A. Climb the stairs early in the day.
• B. Rest for at least an hour before climbing the stairs.
• C. Take a nitroglycerin tablet before climbing the stairs.
• D. Lie down after climbing the stairs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to take a nitroglycerin tablet before climbing the stairs. Nitroglycerin helps prevent angina by dilating the coronary arteries, which increases blood flow to the heart. This medication can help reduce the chest pain and discomfort experienced during physical exertion. Climing the stairs early in the day (Choice A) does not address the underlying issue of inadequate blood flow to the heart. Resting for at least an hour before climbing the stairs (Choice B) may not be as effective in preventing angina as taking nitroglycerin. Lying down after climbing the stairs (Choice D) does not offer a preventive measure for angina; it is more focused on post-activity rest rather than prevention.

2. A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse?

• A. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to him.
• B. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner.
• C. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time.
• D. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best initial action for the nurse in this scenario is to have a discussion with the client about what the treatment regimen means to him. It is important to assess the client's anxiety, coping styles, and acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis or may have concerns that need to be addressed. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments could be helpful, referring the client to a mental health nurse practitioner or discussing peritoneal dialysis are not the most appropriate first steps. Understanding the client's perspective and concerns is crucial before exploring other interventions.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia. Which action by the nurse is best?

• A. Check the client’s digoxin (Lanoxin) level.
• B. Administer an anti-nausea medication.
• C. Ask if the client can eat crackers.
• D. Refer the client to a gastrointestinal specialist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing symptoms like nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia, it is crucial for the nurse to suspect digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. These symptoms are indicative of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the best action for the nurse to take is to check the client's digoxin level. Administering anti-nausea medication, asking about eating crackers, and referring to a gastrointestinal specialist may help with symptom management but do not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is digoxin toxicity in this case.

4. A client with histoplasmosis has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.30, PCO2 58 mm Hg, PO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 27 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's ABG results show a low pH (acidosis) and an elevated PCO2, indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is inadequate excretion of CO2, leading to increased PCO2 levels and a decrease in pH. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Metabolic acidosis'. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Respiratory acidosis involves low pH and high PCO2 levels, as seen in this case. Respiratory alkalosis is associated with high pH and low PCO2 levels.

5. If a client displays risk factors for coronary artery disease, such as smoking cigarettes, eating a diet high in saturated fat, or leading a sedentary lifestyle, techniques of behavior modification may be used to help the client change the behavior. The nurse can best reinforce new adaptive behaviors by:

• A. Explaining how the risk factor behaviors lead to poor health.
• B. Withholding praise until the new behavior is well established.
• C. Rewarding the client whenever the acceptable behavior is performed.
• D. Instilling mild fear in the client to extinguish the behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fundamental principle of behavior modification is that behavior that is rewarded is more likely to be continued. Therefore, rewarding the client whenever the acceptable behavior is performed is the best approach to reinforce new adaptive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because simply explaining how the risk factor behaviors lead to poor health may not be as effective in promoting behavior change compared to positive reinforcement. Choice B is incorrect because withholding praise can hinder progress and motivation for the client. Choice D is incorrect because instilling fear is not a recommended method in behavior modification. It can lead to negative psychological effects and is not a sustainable approach to behavior change.

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