HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. An adult male who lives alone is brought to the Emergency Department by his daughter. He is unresponsive, with minimal respiratory effort, and his pupils are fixed and dilated. At the daughter's request, the client is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Offer to notify the client's minister of his condition.
- B. Determine if the client has an executed living will.
- C. Provide the family with information about palliative care.
- D. Explore the possibility of organ donation with the family.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to determine if the client has an executed living will. A living will provides guidance on the client's preferences for medical care in situations where they cannot communicate. This information is crucial in guiding the care team on how to proceed with treatment. Options A, C, and D, though important in certain circumstances, are not the highest priority in this situation where immediate decisions regarding the client's care need to be made.
2. An 80-year-old male client with multiple chronic health problems becomes disoriented, agitated, and combative 24 hours after being admitted to the hospital. What nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Request a psychiatric consultation for the client.
- B. Reorient the client frequently to time, place, and person.
- C. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medications to reduce agitation.
- D. Obtain an order for a sitter to stay with the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reorienting the client frequently is the most important nursing intervention in this scenario. It helps reduce confusion and agitation, which are common symptoms of acute delirium in hospitalized elderly clients. Requesting a psychiatric consult (choice A) may be necessary if the reorientation does not improve the client's condition or if there are underlying psychiatric concerns, but reorientation should be attempted first. Administering antipsychotic medications (choice C) should not be the initial intervention as they can have adverse effects in elderly individuals. Obtaining a sitter (choice D) may provide support but does not directly address the client's disorientation and agitation.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain a blood glucose level.
- B. Administer an anticoagulant as prescribed.
- C. Perform a neurological assessment.
- D. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Performing a neurological assessment is the priority in this situation as it helps in evaluating the cause of the new onset of confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. This assessment will provide crucial information about the client's neurological status, which can guide further interventions. Obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice A) is important but should not be the first step when dealing with a new onset of confusion. Administering an anticoagulant (Choice B) or aspirin (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the underlying cause, but assessing the neurological status comes first to determine the appropriate course of action.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
- C. Serum glucose of 350 mg/dl
- D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with COPD exacerbation as it may lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias, which pose a significant risk to the patient's life. Options B, C, and D are not typically associated with immediate life-threatening risks in the context of a COPD exacerbation.
5. A client with hypertension receives a prescription for enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which instruction should the nurse include in the medication teaching plan?
- A. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Report increased bruising or bleeding.
- C. Stop medication if a cough develops.
- D. Limit intake of leafy green vegetables.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the medication teaching plan is to 'Report increased bruising or bleeding.' ACE inhibitors can cause thrombocytopenia, which lowers platelet count and increases the risk of bruising and bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because while ACE inhibitors may cause potassium levels to increase, the instruction should not be to increase intake of potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin accumulation, and stopping the medication abruptly is not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to limit intake of leafy green vegetables specifically with ACE inhibitors; however, consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods is recommended to maintain a stable INR for clients taking anticoagulants.
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