Nursing Elites

1. A client with a postoperative wound that eviscerated yesterday has an elevated temperature. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Initiate contact isolation.
• B. Obtain a wound swab for culture and sensitivity.
• C. Assess temperature every 4 hours.
• D. Use alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining a wound swab for culture and sensitivity is the most important intervention in this situation. It helps identify the presence of infection in the postoperative wound that could be causing the elevated temperature. By obtaining a wound swab, healthcare providers can determine the appropriate treatment needed to address any infection. Initiating contact isolation (Choice A) may be necessary in certain situations but is not the priority in this case. Assessing temperature (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the underlying cause of the elevated temperature. Using alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene (Choice D) is a standard practice for infection control but is not the most crucial intervention in this scenario.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
• C. Presence of a new murmur
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles indicate fluid overload in the lungs, a critical sign in a client with heart failure. This finding suggests that the furosemide may not be effectively managing the fluid balance, and immediate intervention is required. Choices A, B, and C are not immediate concerns in this scenario. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and the presence of a new murmur are findings that may require monitoring or intervention but are not as urgent as crackles in the lungs in a client with heart failure.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes atenolol 50 mg daily for a client with angina pectoris. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering this medication?

• A. Irregular pulse.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Chest pain.
• D. Urinary frequency.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular pulse. An irregular pulse may indicate an arrhythmia, which could be exacerbated by atenolol, a beta-blocker used to treat angina pectoris. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so if the patient already has an irregular pulse, it could worsen with the medication. Tachycardia (choice B) would actually be an expected finding in a patient with angina pectoris, and atenolol is used to help reduce the heart rate in such cases. Chest pain (choice C) is a symptom that atenolol is meant to alleviate, so it would not be a reason to withhold the medication. Urinary frequency (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of atenolol for angina pectoris and would not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?

• A. ‘I will take my medication in the morning before breakfast.’
• B. ‘I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.’
• C. ‘I should change positions slowly to avoid dizziness.’
• D. ‘I should avoid abrupt discontinuation of the medication.’

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: ‘I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.’ This statement indicates a misunderstanding as beta-blockers do not typically affect potassium levels. The other choices (A, C, and D) are all appropriate statements for a client prescribed a beta-blocker. Choice A shows understanding of the timing of medication administration, choice C addresses orthostatic hypotension concerns, and choice D highlights the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication to prevent adverse effects.

5. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should be reported to the healthcare provider before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum calcium of 8 mg/dL
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 24 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high and should be reported before hemodialysis to prevent cardiac complications. High potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Serum creatinine (Choice A) is elevated in renal dysfunction but not the most critical value to report before hemodialysis. Serum calcium (Choice C) and serum bicarbonate (Choice D) levels are within normal limits and are not immediate concerns before hemodialysis.

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