HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. Insulin therapy is initiated for a 12-year-old child who is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which action is most important for the nurse to include in the child’s plan of care?
- A. Monitor serum glucose for adjustment in the infusion rate of regular insulin (Novolin R).
- B. Determine the child’s compliance schedule for subcutaneous NPH insulin (Humulin N).
- C. Demonstrate to the parents how to program an insulin pen for daily glucose regulation.
- D. Consult with the healthcare provider about the use of insulin detemir (Levemir Flex Pen).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In managing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), monitoring serum glucose levels is crucial to adjust the infusion rate of regular insulin effectively. This helps in controlling blood glucose levels and preventing complications associated with DKA. Close monitoring and adjustments based on glucose levels are essential for the successful management of DKA. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on a different type of insulin and compliance schedule without addressing the immediate needs of managing DKA. Choice C is not the priority action and involves educating parents on a different method of insulin administration. Choice D is also not the most important action as it suggests consulting with the healthcare provider about a different type of insulin rather than focusing on immediate glucose monitoring for insulin adjustment in DKA management.
2. A mother who is breastfeeding her baby receives instructions from the nurse. Which instruction is most effective to prevent nipple soreness?
- A. Wear a cotton bra.
- B. Increase nursing time gradually.
- C. Correctly place the infant on the breast.
- D. Manually express a small amount of milk before nursing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most effective instruction to prevent nipple soreness when breastfeeding is to correctly place the infant on the breast. Proper latch-on techniques ensure that the baby is properly positioned, reducing the risk of nipple soreness. When the baby is positioned correctly, they can nurse effectively without causing discomfort to the mother.
3. A 34-week primigravida woman with preeclampsia is receiving Lactated Ringer’s 500ml with magnesium sulfate 20 grams at the rate of 3g/hr. How many ml/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- A. 75ml/hr
- B. 100ml/hr
- C. 50ml/hr
- D. 25ml/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total quantity to be infused (500ml) by the total time (1 hour) which equals 500ml/hr. Since the magnesium sulfate is being given at 3g/hr, and 1g of magnesium sulfate is in 5ml of solution, the rate will be 3g/hr x 5ml/g = 15ml/hr. Therefore, the total infusion rate should be 500ml/hr + 15ml/hr = 515ml/hr. Hence, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75ml/hr (515ml/hr total - 500ml/hr Lactated Ringer's rate). This choice is correct because it accounts for both the Lactated Ringer's and magnesium sulfate rates. Choice B, 100ml/hr, is incorrect as it does not consider the additional magnesium sulfate infusion rate. Choice C, 50ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the magnesium sulfate infusion. Choice D, 25ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too low and does not consider the magnesium sulfate being infused concurrently.
4. A young woman who underwent a liver transplant one year ago tells the clinic nurse that she would like to start a family. How should the nurse intervene?
- A. Provide information about the high-risk nature of her pregnancy.
- B. Gently remind the client that anti-rejection drugs can cause sterility.
- C. Explain the benefits of waiting for a five-year post-transplant period.
- D. Determine if the client is considering options for adopting a child.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Post-liver transplant pregnancy is high-risk due to potential complications associated with immunosuppressive therapy and the transplanted organ's health. Providing information about the risks involved allows the client to make an informed decision regarding family planning.
5. Why is complete bedrest necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III?
- A. Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on the heart muscle tissue.
- B. We want your baby to be healthy, and this is the only way we can ensure that will happen.
- C. I know you're upset. Would you like to talk about some activities you could do while in bed?
- D. Labor is difficult, and you need to use this time to rest before assuming child-caring duties.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Complete bedrest is necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III to reduce the workload on the heart, lower oxygen consumption, and prevent complications associated with cardiac conditions like mitral stenosis. By remaining in bed, the client can help maintain cardiac function and promote a safer pregnancy outcome. Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific reason related to the client's medical condition. Choice C is not addressing the medical necessity of bedrest for this particular client. Choice D is irrelevant and does not explain the importance of bedrest for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III.
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