Nursing Elites

1. Using Nägele's rule, what is the estimated date of delivery for a pregnant client who reports that the first day of her last menstrual period was August 2, 2006?

• A. April 25, 2007.
• B. May 9, 2007.
• C. May 29, 2007.
• D. June 2, 2007.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nägele's rule is used to estimate the date of delivery. It involves adding 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (August 2), which gives August 9. Then, subtracting 3 months from August 9, we arrive at May 9 of the following year as the estimated date of delivery. This makes choice B, 'May 9, 2007,' the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct calculation based on Nägele's rule.

2. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

• A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
• B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
• C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
• D. Recent decreased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

3. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as

• A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
• B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
• C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
• D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.

4. A child who received multiple blood transfusions after correction of a congenital heart defect is demonstrating muscular irritability and oozing blood from the surgical incision. Which serum value is most important for the nurse to obtain before reporting to the healthcare provider?

• A. CO2 combining power
• B. Calcium
• C. Sodium
• D. Chloride

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Calcium. In this scenario, the child is displaying symptoms of muscular irritability and oozing blood, which are indicative of hypocalcemia. Calcium levels are crucial to monitor after multiple blood transfusions to prevent complications such as hypocalcemia, which can lead to these symptoms. Therefore, obtaining a serum calcium value is essential for the nurse to assess and address the child's condition effectively. CO2 combining power, Sodium, and Chloride levels are not directly associated with the symptoms described and are not the priority in this situation.

5. During a routine prenatal health assessment for a client in her third trimester, the client reports that she had fluid leakage on her way to the appointment. Which technique should the nurse implement to evaluate the leakage?

• A. Insert a straight urinary catheter to drain the bladder.
• B. Scan the bladder for urinary retention.
• C. Palpate the suprapubic area for fetal head position.
• D. Test the fluid with a nitrazine strip.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Testing the fluid with a nitrazine strip is the appropriate technique to differentiate between amniotic fluid and urine. This test helps in determining if the fluid leakage is amniotic fluid, which is crucial for guiding further management and ensuring appropriate care for the client during the third trimester of pregnancy. Inserting a straight urinary catheter to drain the bladder (Choice A) is unnecessary and invasive in this scenario as the concern is fluid leakage, not urinary retention. Scanning the bladder for urinary retention (Choice B) is also not indicated since the client reported fluid leakage, not retention. Palpating the suprapubic area for fetal head position (Choice C) is unrelated to assessing fluid leakage and not the appropriate technique in this situation.

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